1.Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?
It was not based on adult franchise.
It resulted from direct elections .
It was a multi-party body.
It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4
(E) 1 and 3
2.Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
(A) A written and rigid Constitution
(B) An independent Judiciary
(C) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(D) Distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(E) None of these
3.The parliamentary systems of India and of Britain differ on the account of :
(A) Bicameral legislature
(B)System of collective responsibility
(C) The system of judicial review
(D) The Prime Minister is separately elected by people
(F) None of these
4.Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
(A) Election of the President
(B) Representation of States in Parliament
(C) Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
(D) Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,3 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
(E) 2 and 4
Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a Convention?
(A) The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House
(B) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(C) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(D) It the event of both the President and the Vice President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure, the Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament will officiate as the President
(E) None of these
According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include:
(A) Chief Presidency Magistrate
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) Tribunal Judge
(D) Chief Judge of small court
(E) None of these
7. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee that drafted the Constitution?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C)Dr.RajendraPrasad(D) Dr .S. Radhakrishanan
(E) None of these
8. The Constitution of India was passed by the Constituent Assembly on ;
(A) 17th October , 1949
(B) 14th November, 1949
(C) 26th November , 1949
(D) 26th January, 1950
(E) None of these
9. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) G. V. Mavalanjar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(E) None of these
10. What is contained in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) Forms of oath or affirmation
(B) provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(C) Items on which Panchayats shall have powers and authority to function as institutions of self-government
(D) Items on which Municipalities shall have powers and authority of function as institutions of self-government
(E) None of these
11. The Constitution of India can be best described as:
(A) Purely federal (B) Purely unitary
(C) Partly federal and partly unitary
(D) All of the above is correct
(E) None of these
12. Which of the following fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
(A) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
(B) Freedom of movement, residence and profession
(C) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
(E) None of these
13. The Constitution empowers the President to nominate upto two members to the Lok Sabha from among the:
(A) Anglo- Indians
(B) Buddhists
(C) Indian Christians
(D) Parsees
(E) None of these
14. Which of the following emergencies had been declared the maximum number of times in India?
(A) Emergency under Article 352 due to external aggression
(B) Emergency under Article 352 due to internal disturbances
(C) Financial emergency under Article 360
(D) Emergency under Article 356 due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State
(E) None of these
15. India is considered a ‘Republic’ mainly because:
(A) The Head of the State is elected
(B) It gained Independence on Aug. 15,1947
(C) It has its own written Constitution
(D) It is having a parliamentary form of government
(E) None of these
16. One feature is common to the following bodies-Find it out. Supreme Court , Election Commission , UPSC, Office of CAG:
(A) They are advisory bodies
(B) They are extra – constitutional bodies
(C) They are controlled by legislature
(D) They are constitutional bodies
(E) None of these
17. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly?
(A) 1/6th of the members
(B) 1/3rd of the members
(C) 1/12th of the members
(D) 5/6th of the members
(E) None of these
18. Which one of the following statements about Panchayati Raj is correct?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report recommended a two-tier set –up
(B) Election to Panchayati Raj institution was made compulsory under the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India
(C) “Empowering people for prosperity” is the guiding principle of the Seventry-third Constitution Amendment
(D) The main difficulty faced by Panchayati Raj institutions is the inadequate participation by women and weaker sections
(E) None of these
19. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and a State in respect of a subject included in the Concurrent List in the Constitution India:
(A) The law of the State prevails
(B) The law of the Centre prevails
(C) The matter is resolved by the Supreme Court of India
(D) The law which had been passed first would prevail
(E) None of these
20. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Planning Commission in India?
1. It is an advisory body
2. It is statutory body
3. The Prime Minister is its ex-officio Chairman
4. It makes plans for the Union as well as the States
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
(E) None of these
21. Which one of the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only after the consent of the President /
(A) The Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) The Finance Bill
(C) The Bill for the creation of a new State
(D) The Bill providing for the creation of a new All India service
(E) None of these
22. How many Union Territories are there in India?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 6
(E) None of these
23 .What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Preshdentship ?
(A) 45 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 25
(D) None of these
24. A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for:
(A) Three months (B) Two months
(C) One year
(D) Till the President revokes it
(E) None of these
25. The reservation for SC and ST in Parliament and State Legislatures is extended for 10 years through Constitution’s :
(A) 84th Amendment
(B) 23rd Amendment
(C) 82 Amendment
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
26 .According to the newly adopted Constitution of Russia, the Prime Minister is appointed by:
(A) The State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the Federal Assembly
(B) The President , with the consent of the State Duma
(C) The President with the consent of the Federal Council
(D) The Federal Council
(E) None of these
27. Freedom of the Press in India:
(A) is specifically provided in Article 19(1) of the Constitution
(B) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution
(C) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution
(D) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in country
(E) None of these
28. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(A) Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(B) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
(C) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(D) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government?
(A) The government has two distinct levels, State government and Central or Union government
(B) State government are agents of the Central government
(C) Both Central government and State governments have coordinate status
(E) None of these
30. Article 243 of the Constitution of India, inserted by a constitutional amendment, deals with which of the following ?
(A) Extending the benefits of reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission’s recommendations
(B) Land Reforms
(C) To include Konkani ,Manipuri and Nepal in the list of official languages
(D) Panchayati Raj System
(E) None of these
31. The Estimates Committee of Parliament;
(A) Examines the statements of accounts of the government
(B) Considers the report of the Comptroller and Auditor – General of India
(C) Examines if the money is well laid out within policy limits
(D) Examines the budget before its presentation to Lok Sabha
(E) None of these
32. The notice for moving the Motion for Adjournment of the business of the House is required to be given to :
(A) The Presiding Officer of the House
(B) The Secretary General of the House
(C) The Minister concerned
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
33. The Election Commission functions under:
(A) Ministry of law
(B) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
(C) Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
34. In a parliamentary form of government , the executive is responsible to the ;
(A) People
(B) President
(C) Legislature
(D) Judiciary
(E) None of these
35. Education was transferred to the Concurrent List from the State List by the:
(A) 40th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 43rd Amendment Act
(D) 39th Amendment Act
(E) None of these
36. Indian Constitution provides for a:
(A) Presidential system
(B) Unicameral system
(C) Bicameral system
(D) Unitary system
(E) None of these
37. Presidential system of government is incompatible with the :
(A) Theory of Separation of power
(B) Executive Accountability to the Legislature
(C) Spoils System
(D) Spoils System
(E) None of these
38. Election symbols are allotted to various candidates for Parliamentary elections after scrttinx of nolination papdrs, by:
(A) Chidf Electhon Bommhssioner
(B) Chief Election Officer of the State
(C) Returning Officer of the Constituency
(D) Secretary to the Election Commissioner
(E) None of these
39. Which ideal of the Constitution of India is achieved by the implementation of the adult franchise in India?
(A) Social equality (B) Economic equality
(C) Political equality
(D) Equality before law
(E) None of these
40 . Article 254 of the Indian Constitution describes which of the following :
(A) The Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges
(B) The Union and State have concurrent power to legislate on any matter enumerated in List III
(C) In case of any conflict between Union laws and State laws, the Union laws shall prevail
(D) The Union has exclusive power to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the concurrent list or State list
(E) None of these
41. Who among the following can be removed from the office without impeachment ?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Governor of a State
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
(E) None of these
42. The original Constitution of India contained:
(A) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
(B) over 400 Articles and 10 Schedules
(C) 459 Articles and 9 Schedules
(D) 391 Articles and 10 Schedules
(E) None of these
43. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
(A) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(B) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the State
(C) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the State concerned
(D) Both the exercise of making a recommendation for election and issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
(E) None of these
44. Which one of the following cannot be called a function of the Constitution:
(A) It acts as a source of power and authority of the government
(B) It minimizes confusion and conflict between various organs of government
(C) It strengthens the hands of rulers to rule according to their discretion
(D) It lays down the limits of governmental authority
(E) None of these
45. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(B) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(C) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(D) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
(E) None of these
46. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(A) According to the Indian Constitution local government not an independent tier in the federal system
(B) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(C) Local government finances are to be provided by a commission
(D) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
(E) None of these
47. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament :
(A) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no confidence motion
(B) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(C) He can make statements only in the Upper House
(D) He has to become a member of the Lower House within Six month after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
(E) None of these
48. Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where:
(A) There are no reserved constituencies
(B) A two-party system has developed
(C) The first past –post system prevails
(D) There is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
(E) None of these
49. To be appointed as Advocate- General of the State, the person should possess the qualifications necessary for appointment as:
(A) A Judge of the Supreme Court
(B) A judge of the High Court
(C) A State Governor
(D) Chief Minister of the State
(E) None of these
50. To gullotine the demands for grants in Lok Sabha means:
(A) Rejecting the demands
(B) To vote on the demands without discussion on them
(C) To approve the expenditure proposals
(D) To defer consideration of the expenditure
(E) None of these
51. The Emergency can be proclaimed by:
(A) The President
(B) Parliament
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) Low Minister
(E) None of these
52.The Election Commission is constituted:
(A) Every five years
(B) Every ten years
(C) Every six years
(D) It is a Permanent constitutional body
(E) None of these
53. The Preamble of which country emphasizes domestic tranquility?
(A) India (B) Russia
(C) U.S.A (D) France
(E) None of these
54. Sarkaria Commission did not deal with:
(A) Formation of States
(B) Article 356
(C) Anandpur Saheb Resolution
(D) Centre-State Relations
(E) None of these
55. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is normally:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Speaker
(C) Leader of the opposition party
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of these
56. Which of the following will not constitute Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) All revenues received by the Government of India
(B) All loans raised by the Government of India
(C) Other Public Money
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
57. What is Oligarchy?
(A) Govt. by a priestly
(B) Govt. by military people
(C) Govt. by a few people
(D) None of the above
(E) None of the these
58. The Preamble of our Constitution envisages:
(A) Theoratic state
(B) Sovereign, democratic , secular and socialistic republic
(C) Secular democracy
(D) Monarchy
(E) None of these
59. The maximum period the Rajya Sabha can retain a Money Bill is :
(A) One month (B) Six month
(C) Fourteen days (D) One week
(E) None of these
60. The write ‘Prohibition’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) That no person remains in jail without any cause
(C) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular thing
(D) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
(E) None of these
61. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister in the Union Cabinet?
(A) Secretary to the Government of India
(B) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(C) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
(D) Supreme Court Judge
(E) None of these
62. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
(A) With the prior permission of the President
(B) Only after the Constitution is amended suitably
(C) At the request of two or more States
(D) None of these
63. In the Rajya Sabha the States have been provided:
(A) Equal representation
(B) Representation on the basis of population
(C) Representation on the basis of population and size
(D) Representation on the basis of size
(E) None of these
64. Article 33 of Constitution of India empowers Parliament to ….
(A) Dissolve State Legislatures
(B) Restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights in their application to armed forces or other forces charged with the maintenance of public order
(C) Recall State Governors
(D) Issue directions to State Governments
(E) Nome of these
65. What is the duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 15 minute (B) Half an hour
(C) One hour (D) Not specified
(E) None of these
66. How is the change in government in modern State carried out?
(A) Through violence and bloodshed
(B) Through compromise and electoral adjustments among the competing forces
(C) Through elections and smooth transfer of power
(D) By bringing all aspects of life to a standstill
(E) None of these
67. The President of India must have completed the age of:
(A) 25 years (B) 35 years
(C) 30 years (D) 40years
(E) None of these
68. The Writ ‘certiorari’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to inferior curt to remove a suit and adjudicate upon the validity of the proceedings
(C) That no person remains in jail without any cause
(D) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
(E) None of these
69. The maximum period emergency may be in force continuously in a State is:
(A) Six months (B) Three months
(C) Three years (D) 6 years
(E) None of these
70. In an election electioneering has to cease in a constituency:
(A) 2 days before the poll
(B) 48 hours before the commencement of polling
(C) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
(D) 24 hours before the poll
(E) None of these
71. When was the constitution of India first amended after adoption?
(A) 1954 (B) 1959
(C) 1950 (D) 1951
(E) None of these
72. The Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces is:
(A) Field Marshall
(B) Chief of the Army Staff
(C) The President
(D) The Prime Minister
(E) None of these
73. Who enjoys the legislative powers?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Parliament
(E) None of these
74. The amendment regarding the procedure of the election of the President must be passed by:
(A) Both the Houses
(B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Only Rajya Sabha
(D) Both the House and by not less than half of the State Legislatures
(E) None of these
75. The Constitution of India was amended for the first time in :
(A) January 1951 (B) June, 1951
(C) June, 1952 (D) July, 1952
(E) None of these
76. The Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India because:
(A) They may get salaries regularly every month
(B) Their salaries may by free from legislative vote
(C) There may not be any cut in their salaries
(D) Their financial position may be secured to enable them to dispense impartial justice
(E) None of these
77. Which of the following will not make a Bill, a money Bill?
(A) The imposition, abolition ,alteration or regulation of any tax
(B) The imposition of fines, or other pecuniary penalties
(C) The appropriation of money of the Consolidated Fund of India
(D) Salaries of President , MPs
(E) None of these
78. What is ergotocracy?
(A) Govt. run by workers
(B) Govt. run by old people
(C) Govt. run by rich people
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
79 .When the office of the President falls vacant , the Vice- President automatically become the President in :
(A) India (B) Russia
(C) U.K (D) U.S.A
(E) None of these
80. The Rajya Sabha member must have completed the age of :
(A) 21 years (B) 25 years
(C) 30 years (D) 35 years
(E) None of these
81. According to the Preamble , our Constitution envisages:
(A) Social Justice only
(B) Economic Justice only
(C) Political Justice only
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
82. The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution can be suspended during :
(A) General election
(B) National emergency
(C) All types of emergencies
(D) In all the above situations
(E) None of these
83. The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in :
(A) 1952 (B) 1953
(C) 1954 (D) 1951
(E) None of these
84. The most powerful agency for the formation of public opinion is:
(A) Elections (B) Public meetings
(C) The press (D) Political parties
(E) None of these
85. Which one of the following is the exclusive power of the Council of States?
(A) To introduce a Money Bill
(B) To accept or reject a Money Bill
(C) To decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(D) To declare that in the national interest , Parliament should make laws in respect to any matter that is included in the State Legislative List
(E) None of these
86. The amendment regarding the formation of a New State by separating territory from any other State must be passed by :
(A) Both House of Parliament
(B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Only Rajya Sabha
(D) Both the Houses and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President
(E) None of these
87. Who decides whether a bill is a ‘Money Bill’?
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) Parliamentary Select Committee
(E) None of these
88. National flag of India was presented on behalf of :
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) The people of India
(C) The women of India
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
89. Which of the following will not be the condition under which the President can declare Emergency?
(A) When there is a war
(B) When there is external aggression
(C) When no party has got absolute majority to form ministry at the Centre
(D) When there is internal disturbance
(E) None of these
90. Which one of the following constitutional amendments gives constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institution?
(A) 72nd (B) 73rd
(C) 74th (D) 75th
(E) None of these
91. What is demagogy?
(A) Govt. run by oratorians
(B) Govt. run by teachers
(C) Govt. run by old people
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
92. Under which one of the following Articles , the Supreme Court has been given the powers to review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously?
(A) Article 130
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139
(E) None of these
93. Which one of the following Articles has declared untouchability in any form as un-constitutional ?
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 17
(C) Article 44 (D) Article 45
(E) None of these
94. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of :
(A) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Governor
(D) The Vice-President
(E) None of these
95. All Ministers at the center are appointed by:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President
(C) The Vice – President
(D) Home Minister
(E) None of these
96. The Emergency automatically suspends:
(A) Fundamental Rights under Article 19
(B) The Power of the Governors
(C) The power of the Courts
(D) State government
(E) None of these
97. The system of dual citizenship exists in ;
(A) U.S.A (B) France
(C) India (D) U.K.
(E) None of these
98. The basis of classifying government as Unitary and Federal is :
(A) Relationship between the Centre and States
(B) Relationship between the Legislative and Executive]
(C) Relationship between the Legislature and Judiciary
(D) Relationship between the Prime Minister and the President
(E) None of these
99. The writ ‘Quo Warranto’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Court to anybody to do some particular thing
(C) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of Jurisdiction
(D) To be issued by a court when a person acts in a capacity to which he is not entitled
(E) None of these
100. Which of the following cannot be the reason to declare Financial Emergency?
(A) Threat to financial stability of India
(B) Threat to the credit of India
(C) Drain of foreign exchange by smuggling , unauthorized trading etc.
(D) Financial bankruptcy
(E) None of these
101. The voting age in general elections was reduced from 21 years to 18 by the :
(A) 72nd Amendment
(B) 62nd Amendment
(C) 61st Amendment
(D) 71st Amendment
(E) None of these
102. In the Indian Constitution , the word ‘Cabinet’ has been used only once, and it is in :
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 76
(E) None of these
103.Our Constitution was adopted on :
(A) 26th November , 1949
(B) 15th August , 1945
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 15th August, 1947.
(E) None of these
104. When can a bill be referred to the parliamentary Committee?
(A) Just after being placed in the Parliament
(B) After general debate/ discussion in the second reading
(C) After partial debate/ discussion
(D) After difference between the two Houses
(E) None of these
105. The President of India can declare an emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India if there is:
(A) War or any threat of war
(B) Failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(C) Financial instability in the center
(D) Armed rebellion in the country
(E) None of these
106. The writ ‘Habeas Corpus’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) That no person remains in jail without any cause
(C) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular thing
(D) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
(E) None of these
107. De facto sovereign refers to :
(A) A person who is the lawful ruler of the country
(B) King who has lawfully inherited to the throne
(C) A person or body of persons who actually exercise power
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
108. The power of issuing writs not only for Fundamental Rights but for other purposes also, is with:
(A) Supreme Court (B) High Courts
(C) Lower Court (D) President
(E) None of these
109. The legal sovereignty resides in :
(A) The court which decide the disputes
(B) The Constitution of a country
(C) The body which possesses supreme law making powers
(D) The head of the State
(E) None of these
110. Money bills must be introduced in:
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha Only
(C) Either of these two
(D) Both the House at a time
(E) None of these
111. The Budget is presented to the Parliament normally on :
(A) The last day of March
(B) The last day of February
(C) 15th March
(D) 1st April
(E) None of these
112. The President’s Rule is imposed in a State:
(A) When a Chief Minister misbehaves
(B) When the Governor becomes disloyal to the Centre
(C) When there is breakdown of constitutional machinery
(D) When there is police firing
(E) None of these
113. What is the age of retirement prescribed for a Supreme Court Judge?
(A) 58 years (B) 60 years
(C) 65 years (D) No age limit
(E) None of these
114. How many regional languages were originally recognized by the Constitution?
(A) 14 (B) 15
(C) 16 (D) 17
(E) None of these
115. Which two words have been added in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?
(A) Federal and Democratic
(B) Secular and Sovereign
(C) Secular and Socialist
(D) Federal and Socialist
(E) None of these
116. How many types of emergencies does the Constitution envisage?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) four
(E) None of these
117. How long can a person be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of either House of Parliament ?
(A) One year (B) Six months
(C) Three months (D) One month
(E) None of these
118. In which part of the Constitution are Fundamental Rights given?
(A) Part I (B) Part III
(C) Part IV (D) Part V
(E) None of these
119. Which of the following languages become the 15th official language in1967 by the 21st Amendment?
(A) Oriya (B) Kashmiri
(C) Assomese (D) Sindhi
(E) None of these
120. To Whom/ Which institution is the Prime Minister responsible?
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) The President
(C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha
(E) None of these
121. When was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held?
(A) January 26,1948
(B) August 16,1947
(C) December 9,1946
(D) November 26,1947
(E) None of these
122. When was the first national emergency proclaimed in India?
(A) 1966 (B) 1971
(C) 1978 (D) 1987
(E) None of these
123. What is the tenure of the office of the Governor of a State?
(A) During the pleasure of the Prime Minister
(B) 5 years
(C) During the pleasure of the Speaker
(D) 6 years
(E) None of these
124. which of the following had influenced the Constitution of India the most ?
(A) The British Constitution
(B) The US Constitution
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The UN Charter
(E) None of these
125. Into how many States and Union Territories was the country divided by the States Reorganisation Act , 1956?
(A) 22 States, 9 Union Territories
(B) 14 States, 6 Union Territories
(C) 14 States, 7 Union Territories
(D) 25 States, 9 Union Territories
(E) None of these
126. Which of the following writs literally means ‘What is your authority’?
(A)Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Prohibition
(E) None of these
127. Which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for National Commissions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes separately?
(A) 90th (B) 89th
(C) 91st (D) 88th
(E) None of these
128. The Trade Union affiliated with the Congress Party is:
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Centre for Indian Trade Unions
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
(E) None of these
129. The following Article of the Indian Constitution abolished the Practice of un-touchability:
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 18
(C) Article 17 (D) Article 19
(E) None of these
130. Which one of the following schedules of the constitution is releated to ‘Anti Defection Law’?
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) 13th
(E) None of these
131. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Seventh Schedule
(E) None of these
132. Name the committee for formulating the framework of restructuring railways:
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(E) None of these
133. Who is legally competent under the Indian Constitution to declare war or conclude peace?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Council of Ministers
(D) The Parliament
(E) None of these
134. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India?
(A) Governors of the States
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(C) Vice President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
(E) None of these
135. What was the exact constitutional position of the India Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from January 26, 1950?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(E) None of these
136. A federal structure of India was first put forward by the :
(A) Act of 1909 (B) Act of 1919
(C) Act of 1935 (D) Act of 1947
(E) None of these
137. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) By the President
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
(E) None of these
138. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected members on the ground of defection?
(A) 8th (B) 9th
(C) 10th (D) 11th
(E) None of these
139. What is the correct order of succession (earlier to later) among the following Presidents of India?
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussian
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishanan
(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
4. V.V. Giri
(A) 2,3,4,1 (B) 3,2,4,1
(C) 4,1,2,3 (D) 2,1,4,3
(E) 3,4,2,1
140. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the :
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
(E) None of these
141. Which one of the following was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution ?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) Right to freedom of religion
(E) None of these
142. The first woman Judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was:
(A) Rani Jethmalani
(B) Anna George Malhotra
(C) M. Fathima Beevi
(D) Leila Seth
(E) None of these
143. The 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains:
(A) States and Union Territories
(B) Salaries of President , Vice-President, etc.
(C) Union List , State List and Concurrent List
(D) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
(E) None of these
144. Which of the following languages are included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(A) Sindhi and English
(B) English and Kashmiri
(C) Kashmiri and Gorkhai
(D) Sindhi and Kashmiri
(E) None of these
145. The 8th Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
(A) The list of 18 regional languages
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
146. As a non-member who can participate to the proceedings of either House of Parliament?
(A) Vice-President
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Attorney- General
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
(E) None of these
147. According to the 44th Amendment Bill :
(A) Fundamental Rights are given supremacy over Directive Principles
(B) Parliament gets supreme power
(C) Right to Property has been taken away from the list Fundamental Rights
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
148. Which Amendment to the Constitution gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
(A) 44th (B) 42nd
(C) 40th (D) 25th
(E) None of these
149. Which Amendment Bill inserted the 10th Schedule in the Constitution of India?
(A) 50th (B) 52nd
(C) 44th (D) 42nd
(E) None of these
150. When did India have its first General Elections?
(A) 1947 (B) 1949
(C) 1950 (D) 1951
(E) None of these
151. What is the elective strength of the Lok Sabha?
(A) 525 (B) 450
(C) 545 (D) 548
(E) None of these
152. A Parliamentary Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is sent to the President for his assent. The President sends it back to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration .If the Lok Sabha again passed the Bill and sends it to the President for assent , the President :
(A) Must approve it
(B) Can again send the Bill for reconsideration]
(C) Can take the help of he Supreme Court
(D) Can arrange for a referendum
(E) None of these
153. The total strength of the Rajya Sabha does not exceed:
(A) 200 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 450 members
(D) 525 members
(E) None of these
154. What is the maximum strength of the state Legislative Assembly?
(A) 250 (B) 350
(C) 525 (D) 455
(E) None of these
155. Who presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Vice- President
(E) None of these
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
D D C A B C A C D C C D
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
C D A D B C C A C C D C
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
B B B D D D A A D C B C
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
B A D C C A A C D A A B
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A A D C A C C C B C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
B D B B D C B B C C D C
73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84
D D B B B A D C D B B C
85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96
D D A C C C D B B C B A
97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
A A D C C A A C C B C B
109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C A B C C A C C B B D D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132
C A B C B C B B C B C C
133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144
A C B B D C D C C C C D
145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A C C B B D C A B C C
