(Held on 14-12-2008)
General English : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible
12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need
13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion
14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless
15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent
16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide
17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor
18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand
19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent
20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgement
Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite
22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste
23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination
24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity
25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose
26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity
27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient
28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly
29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative
30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise
32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious
33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate
34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway
35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport
36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary
37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation
38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither
39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible
40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos
42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly
43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with
44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest
45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for
46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected
47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think
48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate
49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back
50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.
51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism
52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature
53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent
54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable
55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier
Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us
57. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop
58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?
59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt
Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement
62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement
63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement
64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement
65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement
Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—
66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman
(A) SQPR
(B) QRPS
(C) PSRQ
(D) RSQP
67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.
(A) QPSR
(B) RPSQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PQSR
68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.
(A) PSQR
(B) PQRS
(C) PSRQ
(D) QRPS
69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey
(A) PQRS
(B) SQRP
(C) RSQP
(D) QSPR
70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(A) QRSP
(B) PRQS
(C) QSRP
(D) PQRS
Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off
72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many
73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with
74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have
75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was
76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over
77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done
78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged
79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with
80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it
Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.
81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents
82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun
83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man
84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books
85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above
Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.
In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.
86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus
87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed
88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate
89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period
90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety
Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
Passage
The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.
91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried
92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead
93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass
94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet
95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food
96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come
97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from
98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans
99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait
100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but
Answers with Hints
1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)
S.S.C. Central Police Organizations
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S.S.C. Central Police Organizations
Sub-Inspectors Exam. 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
Test–II
51. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
51. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
52. Which of the following are incorrectly paired ?
(A) Krishnadeva Raya—Amukta malyada
(B) Harshavardhana—Nagananda
(C) Kalidasa—Ritusamhara
(D) Visakhadatta—Kiratarjuniyam
53. Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
(B) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(D) Abul Kalam Azad
54. During which Gupta King’s reign did the Chinese traveller Fa-hien visit India ?
(A) Chandra Gupta I
(B) Samudra Gupta
(C) Chandra Gupta II
(D) Kumara Gupta
55. The administrative consequence of the Revolt of 1857 was transfer of power from—
(A) East India Company to the British Crown
(B) British Crown to the East India Company
(C) East India Company to the Governor General
(D) British Crown to the Board of Directors
56. The issue on which the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 was launched was—
(A) Equal employment opportunities for Indians
(B) The proposed execution of Bhagat Singh
(C) Salt monopoly exercised by the British Government
(D) Complete freedom
57. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after—
(A) Every five years
(B) Every six years
(C) On the advice of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
58. Who was the last Governor-General of India ?
(A) Sir Cripps
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Sir Attlee
59. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years’ time ?
(A) B.J.P.
(B) Janata Party
(C) Janata Dal
(D) Samajwadi Janata Party
60. Which Directive Principle bears the direct impact of Gandhi’s moral philosophy ?
(A) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Provision of free legal aid and advice
(C) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows
(D) Protection of the monuments of historical importance
61. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘Untouchability’ ?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
62. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
63. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as—
(A) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(B) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
(C) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
64. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertaking
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
65. Match the following cities and their airports—
List-I
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(b) Heathrow
(c) Payalebar
(d) Kaitak
List-II
1. Singapore
2. Hongkong
3. London
4. Mumbai
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
66. Which one of the following methods of soil conservation is most effective in arid areas ?
(A) Mulching
(B) Shelter belt
(C) Gully plugging
(D) Terracing
67. The river which is not Westflowing towards the Arabian Sea is—
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapti
(C) Periyar
(D) Kaveri
68. Tsunamis are caused by—
(A) Mixing of cold and warm currents
(B) Earthquakes
(C) Changes in sea level
(D) Volcanic eruption
69. Which current is responsible for increasing the temperature of Western Europe ?
(A) Labrador current
(B) Gulf stream
(C) Canari current
(D) North Equatorial current
70. Smog is a combination of—
(A) Air and water vapours
(B) Water and smoke
(C) Fire and water
(D) Smoke and fog
71. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of—
(A) Free good
(B) Final good
(C) Producer’s good
(D) Consumer’s good
72. Disinvestment is—
(A) Offloading of shares of private companies to government
(B) Offloading of government shares to private companies
(C) Increase in investment
(D) Closing down of business concerns
73. S.D.R. stands for—
(A) Special Dollar Rights
(B) Special Drawing Rights
(C) State Drawing Rights
(D) Specific Dollar Rights
74. The Commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price, etc. in connection with agricultural goods is the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission
(C) Agricultural Price Commission
(D) National Marketing Commission
75. Which one of the following is a development expenditure ?
(A) Irrigation expenditure
(B) Civil administration
(C) Debt services
(D) Grant-in-aid
76. When average cost of production (AC) falls, marginal cost of production must be—
(A) Rising
(B) Falling
(C) Greater than the average cost
(D) Less than the average cost
77. Green Banking means—
(A) Development of forestry by banks
(B) Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
(C) Financing of irrigation projects by banks
(D) None of the above
78. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) First Five Year Plan, 1951-56
(B) Second Five Year Plan, 1956-61
(C) Third Five Year Plan, 1961-66
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan, 1966-71
79. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(D) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit
80. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good and bad money cannot circulate together
(D) Cannot say
81. Tetanus is caused by—
(A) Clostridium
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteriophage
(D) Salmonella
82. Vitamin E is particularly important for—
(A) Development of teeth
(B) Carbohydrate metabolism
(C) Normal activity of sex glands
(D) General health of epithelial tissues
83. Birds usually have a single—
(A) Kidney
(B) Lung
(C) Testis
(D) Ovary
84. Blood pressure is controlled by—
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Thyroid gland
(C) Thymus
(D) Corpus luteum
85. The carbon dioxide content in the air that we exhale is about—
(A) 4%
(B) 8%
(C) 12%
(D) 16%
86. Maximum harm to a tree is caused by—
(A) Loss of half of its leaves
(B) Loss of all leaves
(C) Loss of half of its branches
(D) Loss of its bark
87. Mineral constituent of chlorophyll is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
(D) Potassium
88. Which part of tongue bears cells for sour taste ?
(A) Front
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
89. The deficiency of Vitamin B causes—
(A) Scurvy
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Phynoderma
90. In which vertebrate does oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed ?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Bird
(D) Mammal
91. Which of the following circuit elements is used to ‘block’ DC in an electronic circuit ?
(A) Resistance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Inductance
(D) Diode
92. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have—
(A) Bifocal lens
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave lens
(D) Polaroids
93. The number of satellites of the planet Mercury is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 16
94. A boy sitting in an open car moving with constant speed throws a ball straight up into the air. The ball falls—
(A) Behind him
(B) In front of him
(C) Into his hand
(D) By his side
95. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
96. The process involved in making soap is—
(A) Saponification
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Condensation
(D) Polymerisation
97. Sea water can be purified by the process of—
(A) Distillation
(B) Evaporation
(C) Filtration
(D) Fractional distillation
98. Detergents clean surfaces on the principle of—
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Elasticity
(D) Floatation
99. The compound to which H2 does not add is—
(A) Biphenyl ethylene
(B) Tetraphenyl ethylene
(C) Tetrachloro ethane
(D) Tetracyano ethylene
100. Ammonal is a mixture of—
(A) Aluminium powder and ammonium nitrate
(B) Aluminium powder and ammonium chloride
(C) Aluminium powder and ammonium sulphate
(D) Aluminium powder and potassium nitrate
101. Which gas does not form the part of atmosphere ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Chlorine
(D) None of the above
102. The number of players in each side in Water Polo is—
(A) 07
(B) 09
(C) 05
(D) 04
103. A kilowatt-hour is unit of—
(A) Energy
(B) Power
(C) Electric charge
(D) Electric current
104. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under—
(A) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government (1990)
(B) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)
(D) Janata Party Government (1977)
105. The Report of Vijay Kelkar Committee relates to—
(A) Trade Reforms
(B) Centre-State Financial Relations
(C) Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises
(D) Tax Reforms
106. Molotov cocktail is a—
(A) Meeting
(B) Council
(C) Drink
(D) Grenade
107. Who was the first woman in the world to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Yoko Ono
(D) Aung Sung
108. Who was the author of the Kadambari, a great romantic play ?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Harshavardhana
(C) Bhaskaravardhan
(D) Bindusara
109. Who is the author of the book ‘What Went Wrong’ ?
(A) Sushma Swaraj
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Shaila Nigar
(D) Kiran Bedi
110. Which sports person is nick named Dennis the Menace ?
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Jim Courier
(C) Pete Samprass
(D) John McNroe
111. Bhilai Steel Plant was built with the collaboration of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Japan
112. Ventilators are provided near the ceiling of the room because—
(A) The exhaled warmer air rises up and goes out
(B) These provide cross ventilation in the room
(C) These provide some sunlight in the room
(D) These do not look nice in the lower part
113. The hair of shaving brush clings together when removed from water due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Elasticity
(D) Friction
114. In severe winter, in cold countries water pipes burst because—
(A) Water expands on freezing
(B) Contraction of water pipes
(C) High atmospheric pressure
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
115. The pair which is not a twin-city is—
(A) Hyderabad-Secunderabad
(B) Durgapur-Asansol
(C) Calcutta-Howrah
(D) Delhi-New Delhi
116. Who was the second man to land on the Moon ?
(A) Yuri Gagarin
(B) Neil Armstrong
(C) Buzz Aldrin
(D) Michael Collins
117. The fuel used in an atomic reactor is—
(A) Coal
(B) Petrol
(C) Combustable gases
(D) Uranium
118. The Gir Forest is noted for its—
(A) Lion sanctuary
(B) Deer-Park
(C) Tiger sanctuary
(D) Crocodile Park
119. White coal is—
(A) Uranium
(B) Hydro-electricity
(C) Diamond
(D) Ice
120. Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007 ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virender Sehwag
121. ICI is the name associated with—
(A) A MNC which manufactures chemicals
(B) Indian Cement Industry
(C) Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(D) A private sector bank
122. With the inclusion of Coal India Limited recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs, their number now stands at—
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 18
123. ‘Nextzone’, an information technology SEZ is being established at—
(A) Panki in Uttar Pradesh
(B) Panvel in Maharashtra
(C) Bangalore in Karnataka
(D) Secunderabad in Andhra Pradesh
124. The name of India’s research station at the North pole is—
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Maitri
(C) Himadri
(D) None of the above
125. The finalists of the AFC Challenge Cup 2008 were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Tajakistan
(C) D.P.R.K. and Tajakistan
(D) Myanmar and D.P.R.K.
Answers :
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (A) 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (B)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (D) 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (A)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (A) 105. (D) 106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (A) 109. (D) 110. (A)
111. (B) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (C) 117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (B)
121. (A) 122. (D) 123. (B) 124. (C) 125. (B)
Sub-Inspectors Exam. 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
Test–II
51. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
51. The Qutub Minar was completed by the famous ruler—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khilji
52. Which of the following are incorrectly paired ?
(A) Krishnadeva Raya—Amukta malyada
(B) Harshavardhana—Nagananda
(C) Kalidasa—Ritusamhara
(D) Visakhadatta—Kiratarjuniyam
53. Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
(B) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(D) Abul Kalam Azad
54. During which Gupta King’s reign did the Chinese traveller Fa-hien visit India ?
(A) Chandra Gupta I
(B) Samudra Gupta
(C) Chandra Gupta II
(D) Kumara Gupta
55. The administrative consequence of the Revolt of 1857 was transfer of power from—
(A) East India Company to the British Crown
(B) British Crown to the East India Company
(C) East India Company to the Governor General
(D) British Crown to the Board of Directors
56. The issue on which the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930 was launched was—
(A) Equal employment opportunities for Indians
(B) The proposed execution of Bhagat Singh
(C) Salt monopoly exercised by the British Government
(D) Complete freedom
57. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after—
(A) Every five years
(B) Every six years
(C) On the advice of the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
58. Who was the last Governor-General of India ?
(A) Sir Cripps
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Sir Attlee
59. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years’ time ?
(A) B.J.P.
(B) Janata Party
(C) Janata Dal
(D) Samajwadi Janata Party
60. Which Directive Principle bears the direct impact of Gandhi’s moral philosophy ?
(A) Equal pay for equal work
(B) Provision of free legal aid and advice
(C) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows
(D) Protection of the monuments of historical importance
61. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘Untouchability’ ?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
62. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
63. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as—
(A) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(B) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
(C) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
64. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertaking
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
65. Match the following cities and their airports—
List-I
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(b) Heathrow
(c) Payalebar
(d) Kaitak
List-II
1. Singapore
2. Hongkong
3. London
4. Mumbai
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
66. Which one of the following methods of soil conservation is most effective in arid areas ?
(A) Mulching
(B) Shelter belt
(C) Gully plugging
(D) Terracing
67. The river which is not Westflowing towards the Arabian Sea is—
(A) Narmada
(B) Tapti
(C) Periyar
(D) Kaveri
68. Tsunamis are caused by—
(A) Mixing of cold and warm currents
(B) Earthquakes
(C) Changes in sea level
(D) Volcanic eruption
69. Which current is responsible for increasing the temperature of Western Europe ?
(A) Labrador current
(B) Gulf stream
(C) Canari current
(D) North Equatorial current
70. Smog is a combination of—
(A) Air and water vapours
(B) Water and smoke
(C) Fire and water
(D) Smoke and fog
71. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of—
(A) Free good
(B) Final good
(C) Producer’s good
(D) Consumer’s good
72. Disinvestment is—
(A) Offloading of shares of private companies to government
(B) Offloading of government shares to private companies
(C) Increase in investment
(D) Closing down of business concerns
73. S.D.R. stands for—
(A) Special Dollar Rights
(B) Special Drawing Rights
(C) State Drawing Rights
(D) Specific Dollar Rights
74. The Commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price, etc. in connection with agricultural goods is the—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission
(C) Agricultural Price Commission
(D) National Marketing Commission
75. Which one of the following is a development expenditure ?
(A) Irrigation expenditure
(B) Civil administration
(C) Debt services
(D) Grant-in-aid
76. When average cost of production (AC) falls, marginal cost of production must be—
(A) Rising
(B) Falling
(C) Greater than the average cost
(D) Less than the average cost
77. Green Banking means—
(A) Development of forestry by banks
(B) Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
(C) Financing of irrigation projects by banks
(D) None of the above
78. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) First Five Year Plan, 1951-56
(B) Second Five Year Plan, 1956-61
(C) Third Five Year Plan, 1961-66
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan, 1966-71
79. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(D) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit
80. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good and bad money cannot circulate together
(D) Cannot say
81. Tetanus is caused by—
(A) Clostridium
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteriophage
(D) Salmonella
82. Vitamin E is particularly important for—
(A) Development of teeth
(B) Carbohydrate metabolism
(C) Normal activity of sex glands
(D) General health of epithelial tissues
83. Birds usually have a single—
(A) Kidney
(B) Lung
(C) Testis
(D) Ovary
84. Blood pressure is controlled by—
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Thyroid gland
(C) Thymus
(D) Corpus luteum
85. The carbon dioxide content in the air that we exhale is about—
(A) 4%
(B) 8%
(C) 12%
(D) 16%
86. Maximum harm to a tree is caused by—
(A) Loss of half of its leaves
(B) Loss of all leaves
(C) Loss of half of its branches
(D) Loss of its bark
87. Mineral constituent of chlorophyll is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Calcium
(D) Potassium
88. Which part of tongue bears cells for sour taste ?
(A) Front
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
89. The deficiency of Vitamin B causes—
(A) Scurvy
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Phynoderma
90. In which vertebrate does oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed ?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibian
(C) Bird
(D) Mammal
91. Which of the following circuit elements is used to ‘block’ DC in an electronic circuit ?
(A) Resistance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Inductance
(D) Diode
92. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have—
(A) Bifocal lens
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave lens
(D) Polaroids
93. The number of satellites of the planet Mercury is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 16
94. A boy sitting in an open car moving with constant speed throws a ball straight up into the air. The ball falls—
(A) Behind him
(B) In front of him
(C) Into his hand
(D) By his side
95. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system ?
(A) Asteroids
(B) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
96. The process involved in making soap is—
(A) Saponification
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Condensation
(D) Polymerisation
97. Sea water can be purified by the process of—
(A) Distillation
(B) Evaporation
(C) Filtration
(D) Fractional distillation
98. Detergents clean surfaces on the principle of—
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Elasticity
(D) Floatation
99. The compound to which H2 does not add is—
(A) Biphenyl ethylene
(B) Tetraphenyl ethylene
(C) Tetrachloro ethane
(D) Tetracyano ethylene
100. Ammonal is a mixture of—
(A) Aluminium powder and ammonium nitrate
(B) Aluminium powder and ammonium chloride
(C) Aluminium powder and ammonium sulphate
(D) Aluminium powder and potassium nitrate
101. Which gas does not form the part of atmosphere ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Chlorine
(D) None of the above
102. The number of players in each side in Water Polo is—
(A) 07
(B) 09
(C) 05
(D) 04
103. A kilowatt-hour is unit of—
(A) Energy
(B) Power
(C) Electric charge
(D) Electric current
104. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under—
(A) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government (1990)
(B) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)
(D) Janata Party Government (1977)
105. The Report of Vijay Kelkar Committee relates to—
(A) Trade Reforms
(B) Centre-State Financial Relations
(C) Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises
(D) Tax Reforms
106. Molotov cocktail is a—
(A) Meeting
(B) Council
(C) Drink
(D) Grenade
107. Who was the first woman in the world to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Yoko Ono
(D) Aung Sung
108. Who was the author of the Kadambari, a great romantic play ?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Harshavardhana
(C) Bhaskaravardhan
(D) Bindusara
109. Who is the author of the book ‘What Went Wrong’ ?
(A) Sushma Swaraj
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Shaila Nigar
(D) Kiran Bedi
110. Which sports person is nick named Dennis the Menace ?
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Jim Courier
(C) Pete Samprass
(D) John McNroe
111. Bhilai Steel Plant was built with the collaboration of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Japan
112. Ventilators are provided near the ceiling of the room because—
(A) The exhaled warmer air rises up and goes out
(B) These provide cross ventilation in the room
(C) These provide some sunlight in the room
(D) These do not look nice in the lower part
113. The hair of shaving brush clings together when removed from water due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Elasticity
(D) Friction
114. In severe winter, in cold countries water pipes burst because—
(A) Water expands on freezing
(B) Contraction of water pipes
(C) High atmospheric pressure
(D) Combined effect of all the above three
115. The pair which is not a twin-city is—
(A) Hyderabad-Secunderabad
(B) Durgapur-Asansol
(C) Calcutta-Howrah
(D) Delhi-New Delhi
116. Who was the second man to land on the Moon ?
(A) Yuri Gagarin
(B) Neil Armstrong
(C) Buzz Aldrin
(D) Michael Collins
117. The fuel used in an atomic reactor is—
(A) Coal
(B) Petrol
(C) Combustable gases
(D) Uranium
118. The Gir Forest is noted for its—
(A) Lion sanctuary
(B) Deer-Park
(C) Tiger sanctuary
(D) Crocodile Park
119. White coal is—
(A) Uranium
(B) Hydro-electricity
(C) Diamond
(D) Ice
120. Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007 ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virender Sehwag
121. ICI is the name associated with—
(A) A MNC which manufactures chemicals
(B) Indian Cement Industry
(C) Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(D) A private sector bank
122. With the inclusion of Coal India Limited recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs, their number now stands at—
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 18
123. ‘Nextzone’, an information technology SEZ is being established at—
(A) Panki in Uttar Pradesh
(B) Panvel in Maharashtra
(C) Bangalore in Karnataka
(D) Secunderabad in Andhra Pradesh
124. The name of India’s research station at the North pole is—
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Maitri
(C) Himadri
(D) None of the above
125. The finalists of the AFC Challenge Cup 2008 were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Tajakistan
(C) D.P.R.K. and Tajakistan
(D) Myanmar and D.P.R.K.
Answers :
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (A) 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (B)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (D) 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (A)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (A) 105. (D) 106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (A) 109. (D) 110. (A)
111. (B) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (C) 117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (B)
121. (A) 122. (D) 123. (B) 124. (C) 125. (B)
Numerical Ability Questions For Bank Exams
0 comments
Q.1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to
a. 11 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21
Answer-d
Q.2.
Answer d
Q.3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is
a. -1 b. 0
c. 1 d. 2
Answer -b
Q.4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to
a. 0.148148148 ....
b. 0.777 ....
c. 0.121212 ....
d. 1.333 ....
Answer-a
Q.5.
Answer-d
Q.6.
Answer-c
Q.7.
Answer-c
Q.8.
Answer-c
Q.9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get
a. 96 b. 104 c. 108 d. 109
Answer-d
Q.10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27
a. 54 b. 64 c. 81 d. 91
Answer-d
Q.11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -
a. 125m b. 135 m c. 159 m d. 175 m
Answer-c
Q.12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?
a. 7 min & 15 sec
b. 7 min & 45 sec
c. 8 min & 5 sec
d. 8 min & 15 sec
Answer-d
Q.13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water?
a. 7:5 b. 1:2
c. 2:1 d. 6:5
Answer-a
Q.14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?
a. 45 km/hr
b. 50 km/hr
c. 55 km/hr
d. 65 km/hr
Answer-c
Q.15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in
Answer-a
Q.16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was
a. 450 km
b. 675 km
c. 337.5 km
d. 1350 km
Answer-b
Q.17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is
a. Rs. 84
b. Rs. 147
c. Rs. 196
d. Rs. 240
Answer-a
Q.18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is
a. Rs. 3500
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 2500
d. Rs. 4000
Answer-c
Q.19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to complete the work is
Answer-b
Q.20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is
a. Rs. 1700
b. Rs. 1800
c. Rs. 2000
d. Rs. 2200
Answer-c
Q.21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in
a. 48 days
b. 60 days
c. 75 days
d. 90 days
Answer-d
Q.22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is
a. 1848 cm3
b. 1232 cm3
c. 1078 cm3
d. 980 cm3
Answer-c
Q.23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is
a. 30 cm
b. 60 cm
c. 72 cm
d. 108 cm
Answer-b
Q.24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-
a. 125 sq. cm
b. 112.5 sq. cm
c. 110 sq. cm
d. 100√2 sq. m
Answer-b
Q.25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -
a. 10 cm
b. 24 cm
c. 26 cm
d. 27.5 cm
Answer-b
Q.26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as
a. 4 : 1
b. 2 :1 c. 7 : 5
d. 7 :10
Answer-a
Q.27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is
a. √Ï€ : √6
b. √Ï€ : √6
c. √Ï€ : √3
d. √6 : √Ï€
Answer-d
Q.28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table?
a. Rs. 2400
b. Rs. 2160
c. Rs. 2100
d. Rs. 2052
Answer-d
Q.29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal is-
Answer-b
Q.30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is -
a. 10% b. 12%
c. 15% d. 16⅔ %
Answer-c
Q.31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
Answer-b
Q.32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?
a. Rs. 1,20,000
b. Rs. 1,92,000
c. Rs. 1,24,000
d. Rs. 96,000
Answer-b33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is
a. 10% b. 15%
c. 12½%
d. 25% Answer-d
Q.34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio?
Answer-a
Q.35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was -
a. 30 dozen
b. 40 dozen
c. 50 dozen
d. 60 dozen
Answer-d
Q.36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is
a. Rs. 370
b. Rs. 385
c. Rs. 390
d. Rs. 400
Answer-c
Q.37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
a. Rs. 950
b. Rs. 980
c. Rs. 1010
d. Rs. 1040
Answer-d
Q.38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is
a. 24 b. 36 c. 17 d. 72
Answer-d
Q.39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -
a. 15
b. 12 c. 10
d. 20 Answer-a
Q.40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?a. Rs. 300
b. Rs. 350
c. Rs. 375
d. Rs. 475
Answer-d
a. 11 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21
Answer-d
Q.2.
Answer d
Q.3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is
a. -1 b. 0
c. 1 d. 2
Answer -b
Q.4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to
a. 0.148148148 ....
b. 0.777 ....
c. 0.121212 ....
d. 1.333 ....
Answer-a
Q.5.
Answer-d
Q.6.
Answer-c
Q.7.
Answer-c
Q.8.
Answer-c
Q.9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get
a. 96 b. 104 c. 108 d. 109
Answer-d
Q.10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27
a. 54 b. 64 c. 81 d. 91
Answer-d
Q.11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -
a. 125m b. 135 m c. 159 m d. 175 m
Answer-c
Q.12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?
a. 7 min & 15 sec
b. 7 min & 45 sec
c. 8 min & 5 sec
d. 8 min & 15 sec
Answer-d
Q.13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water?
a. 7:5 b. 1:2
c. 2:1 d. 6:5
Answer-a
Q.14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?
a. 45 km/hr
b. 50 km/hr
c. 55 km/hr
d. 65 km/hr
Answer-c
Q.15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in
Answer-a
Q.16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was
a. 450 km
b. 675 km
c. 337.5 km
d. 1350 km
Answer-b
Q.17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is
a. Rs. 84
b. Rs. 147
c. Rs. 196
d. Rs. 240
Answer-a
Q.18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is
a. Rs. 3500
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 2500
d. Rs. 4000
Answer-c
Q.19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to complete the work is
Answer-b
Q.20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is
a. Rs. 1700
b. Rs. 1800
c. Rs. 2000
d. Rs. 2200
Answer-c
Q.21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in
a. 48 days
b. 60 days
c. 75 days
d. 90 days
Answer-d
Q.22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is
a. 1848 cm3
b. 1232 cm3
c. 1078 cm3
d. 980 cm3
Answer-c
Q.23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is
a. 30 cm
b. 60 cm
c. 72 cm
d. 108 cm
Answer-b
Q.24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-
a. 125 sq. cm
b. 112.5 sq. cm
c. 110 sq. cm
d. 100√2 sq. m
Answer-b
Q.25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -
a. 10 cm
b. 24 cm
c. 26 cm
d. 27.5 cm
Answer-b
Q.26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as
a. 4 : 1
b. 2 :1 c. 7 : 5
d. 7 :10
Answer-a
Q.27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is
a. √Ï€ : √6
b. √Ï€ : √6
c. √Ï€ : √3
d. √6 : √Ï€
Answer-d
Q.28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table?
a. Rs. 2400
b. Rs. 2160
c. Rs. 2100
d. Rs. 2052
Answer-d
Q.29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal is-
Answer-b
Q.30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is -
a. 10% b. 12%
c. 15% d. 16⅔ %
Answer-c
Q.31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
Answer-b
Q.32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?
a. Rs. 1,20,000
b. Rs. 1,92,000
c. Rs. 1,24,000
d. Rs. 96,000
Answer-b33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is
a. 10% b. 15%
c. 12½%
d. 25% Answer-d
Q.34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio?
Answer-a
Q.35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was -
a. 30 dozen
b. 40 dozen
c. 50 dozen
d. 60 dozen
Answer-d
Q.36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is
a. Rs. 370
b. Rs. 385
c. Rs. 390
d. Rs. 400
Answer-c
Q.37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
a. Rs. 950
b. Rs. 980
c. Rs. 1010
d. Rs. 1040
Answer-d
Q.38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is
a. 24 b. 36 c. 17 d. 72
Answer-d
Q.39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -
a. 15
b. 12 c. 10
d. 20 Answer-a
Q.40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?a. Rs. 300
b. Rs. 350
c. Rs. 375
d. Rs. 475
Answer-d
Punjab National Bank (Management Trainee)
0 commentsPREVIOUS PAPER Held on: 11-01-2009 (Based on memory)
Test-I: Reasoning
Q.1. If each vowel ofthe word WEBPAGE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it,which of the following letters will appear thrice? 1)G 2) F 3) Q 4) V 5) None of these
Q.2.How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed with the letters TPSI using each letter only once in each word? 1)One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
Q.3.Nitin correctly remembers that Nidhi's birthday is before Friday but after Tuesday. Derek correctly remembers that Nidhi's birthday is after Wednesday but before Saturday. On which of the following days does Nidhi's birthday definitely fall ? 1)Monday 2) Tuesday 3) Wednesday 4) Thursday 5) Cannot be determined
Q.4 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DOCUMENTARY each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet? 1)None 2) One 3) two 4) Three 5) More than three
Q.5.Raman starts from point P and walks towards South and stops at point Q. He now takes a right turn followed by a left turn and stops at point R. He finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If he walks 5 km before taking each turn towards which direction will Raman have to walk from point S to reach point Q? 1)North 2) South 3) West 4) East 5) North West
Q.6.If the digits of the number 26839514 are arranged in desscending order, the position of how many digits will remain unchanged? 1)One 2) Two 3) Three 4)Four 5) None
Q.7.In a certain code KITE is written as %2$# and STUD is . written as @$57, How is DESK written in that code? 1)8'%©# 2) ©8%# 3) #7%@ 4)7#@% 5) None of these
Q.8.The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetical series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternatives shall replace the question mark? XDH, VGJ, TJL, RMN, ? 1) OOP 2) PPP 3) SNO 4)QLM 5) None of these
Q.9.What should come next in the following letter series? b a c b a cd b a c deb a cd e fb a c d 1)c 2)d 3)e 4)f 5) g
Q.10. Among six friends L, M, N, P, Q and S, each having a different height, N is taller than Q and P but shorter than M. P is taller than only Q while S is shorter than only L. Which of the following pairs represents the tallest and the shortest among the five friends? 1)M,P 2)L,Q 3)P,Q 4) Cannot be determined 5) None ofthese
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.11. Statements: All snakes are eagles. Some eagles are rabbits. All rabbits are birds, Some birds arc animals . Conclusions: I Some animals are snakes. Il Some birds are snakes, III Some birds are eagles. IV. All birds are rabbits. 1) None follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows 4) Both II and III follow 5) None of these
Q.12.Statements: Some cameras are calculators . Some calculators are diaries. All notebooks are diaries. All diaries are computers. Conclusions: I Some notebooks are calculators. Il, Some calculators are computers . III All notebooks are computers. IV. Some diaries are cameras . 1) None follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows 4) Both II and III follow 5) None of these
Q.13.Statements: All planets are stars. All stars are asteroids. All asteroids are moons. Some moons are rocks. Conclusions: I All asteroids are planets. II All asteroids are stars. Ill, All moons are stars. IV. Some rocks are stars. 1)None follows 2)Only I follows 3)Only II follows 4)Only either I or II follows 5)None of these
Q.14.Statements: Some bats are toys. Some toys are plastics. Some plastics are mirrors. No mirror is glass. Conclusions: ]I Some toys are mirrors. Il, Some plastics are glasses. Ill, Some bats are mirrors. IV. No glass is plastic. 1)Only III follows 2)Only either II or IV follows 3)Only either I or III fo Ilows 4)Only either III or IV follows 5)None of these
Q.15.Statements: All graduates are advocates. Some advocates are judges. All judges are lawyers. Some lawyers are doctors. Conclusions: I Some doctors are advocates. II All graduates are judges. IlI Some doctors are graduates. IV. Some lawyers are advocates. 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) Either III or IV follows 5) None of these Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and Ware sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. P sits third to the right of W and third to the left of Q. S sits second to the right of T. V sits second to the left of R. T is not the neighbour of Q while U is neither a neighbour of T nor of W. Q.16.Who sits second to the left of V? 1)R 2)P 3)U 4)T 5) None ofthese Q.17.Who sits between U and P? 1) S 2)R 3)V 4)Q 5) None of these Q.18.Starting from P's position, ifall the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of how many members (excluding P) would not change? 1) None 2) One 3)Two 4) Three 5) Four Q.19.Which of the following pairs has only one person sitting between them, if the counting is done in the clockwise direction? 1)T, V 2)V,Q 3)W, P 4) R, P 5) None of these Q.20.Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the seating arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1)W,T 2)P,U 3)S,Q 4)R,P 5) P, Q
Directions (Q. 21-25): In each ofthese questions a group ofletters is given followed by four combinations of number! symbol numbered 1),2),3) & 4). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial number of the combination which represents the letter group. The serial number of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer IS 5), ie 'None of these'.
Letters : E Q B K N P LIT C S F H W A Digit / Symbol Code :5*$2©#49@6 Conditions: (i)If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel. (ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the two arc to be interchanged. (iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as '5'. (iv) If there are more than two vowels in the group of letters, all vowels are to be coded as '£'.
Q.21.KAWIPL 1)2379#4 2)5379#5 3)4379#2 4)2379#2 5) None of these
Q.22.IQCPWF 1)9*6#78 2)9*6#79 3)8*6#75 4)8*6#79 5) None ofthese
Q.23.TCKAPE 1)@623#@ 2)@623#5 3)5623#5 4)5623#@ 5) None of these
Q.24.IKBQFA 1)92$8*3 2)923$*8 3)92*83$ 4)£2$8*£ 5) None of these
Q.25.lBTNAE I) £$@©££ 2) $9@©35 3)$@9©35 4) £©$©££ 5) None of these
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