B.ED EXAMINATION 2006 (UNSOLVED PAPER)

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Paper I : Philosophical and sociological Foundation of Education
( section :A ) (2x10=20)
Q.1. Whodefined education as tri-polar process ?
(A) Tagore (B) John Dewey (C) Adams (D) Duckhiem
Q.2. Who told "Non-formal education is anti formal education" ?
(A) Paul Goodman (B) Shri Aurobindo (C) Illich (D) Karl Marx
Q.3. The Vedas are divided into :
(A) Eight parts (B) Four parts (C) Six parts (D) Two parts
Q.4. Who wrote the 'Brahma Sutra' ?
(A) Ramanuja (B) Madhav (C) Badarayana (D) Jayanta
Q.5. Ultimate form of Naturalism in education was propounded by :
(A) Comenius (B) T.H. Huxley (C) Rousseau (D) Bacon
Q.6. Who is associated with 'Novum organum ' ?
(A) Karl Marx (B) Aristotle (C) Bacon (D) Rousseau
Q.7. Who is the writer of 'Indian Society' ?
(A) R.S Sharma (B) S.C Dubey (C) R.N Tagore (D) Shrinivas
Q.8. The theory of 'Cultural Lag' is given by :
(A) Durkheim (B) Ogburn (C) Pareto (D) Spencer
Q.9. Who defined:"By Social Mobility is meant any transition of an individual from one position to another in a constellation of social group and starra"?
(A) Spencer (B) P. Sorokin (C) Mciver (D) Ottaway
Q.10. 'Document on social , Moral and Spiritual Valuas in Education' is published by :
(A) NCTE (B) NCERT (C) ICSSR (D) ICPR
SECTION: B (4X5=20)
Q.1. Explain the concept of Education as investment.
Q.2. Identify the place of education in society.
Q.3. Explain the importance of Bhagwadgita for value education.
Q.4. What do you mean by 'eight fold yoga' ?
Q.5. Explain the Idealistic aims of education.
Q.6. Narrate various types of Realism.
Q.7. 'Indian Society is multicultural' Discuss.
Q.8. 'School reflects society.'Discuss.
Q.9. Narrate educational values.
Q.10. Explain important features of 'Basic Education' propounded by Gandhi.
Section: C (3x20=60 )
Q.1. Establish the relationship between 'education and philosophy' .

Q.2. Explain the main features of Nyaya Darshan and discuss its importance for educational philosophy.

Q.3. Describe five processes of social change in india and their respective impact on education.

Q.4. What is the philosophy of realism ? Describe its aims and methods of education.

Q.5. Discuss the contribution of sri Aurobindo to educational philosophy.

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Paper II: Indian Education and its Problems

Section :A

Q.1. 'Para' vidya is associated with :

(A) Vedic Knowledge

(B) Spiritual Knowledge

(D) Scientific Knowledge
Q.2. Buddhist literature is preserved in :

(A) Agamas (B) Tripitakas (C) Sutras (D) Mantras
Q.3. Whose name is associated with the propagation of primary Educationin pre-indipendent India ?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) B.G. Tilak (C) Gopal Krishna Ghokale (D) Sadler
Q.4. Calcutta ,Bombay and Madras Universities were established by :

(A) Indian Education Commision

(B) Wood's despatch

(D) Sadler Commision
Q.5. Which programme is assisted by world bank ?

(A) PMOST (B) DPEP (C) SOPT (D) OBBS
Q.6. The Keystone to the system of technical and Vocational education in India is :

(A) IIT (B) ATI (C) AICTE (D) NCTVT
Q.7. 'National Adult Education Programme' was formaly started in the year :

(A) 1974 (B) 1978 (C) 1986 (D) 1990
Q.8. The number of Teacher's Training College in 1947 was :

(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 28
Q.9. NCTE was operational in the year :

(A) 1997 (B) 1995 (C) 1993 (D) 1994
Q.10.Two language formula is associated with :

(A) NEP 1986

(B) Kothari Commission

(D) University Education Commission

Section B

Q.1. Describe the aims of Vedic Education.

Q.2. Explain the features of Charter Act 1813.

Q.3. Point out the problem of stagination at primary level of Education.

Q.4. Narrate the four aims of University Education according to Radha Krishna Commission.

Q.5. Explain the concept of Continuing Education.

Q.6. Narrate the role of IGNOU for distance education.

Q.7. Describe the main recommendations for teachers training as per Sargent Plan.

Q.8. Point out the defects of pre-service Teacher Education.

Q.9. Write short note on steps for equalization of educational opportunity in NEP (1986).

Q.10. Enumerate the factors leading to Environment.

Section :C

Q.1. Discuss constitutional provisions related to democratization of Education in india.

Q.2. Describe the main problems of indian Universities due to external factors.

Q.3. Discuss various methods of teaching for adult learners.

Q.4. Discuss the recommendations of Kothari commision for quality improvementin teacher education.

Q.5. Narrate the goals, objectives and scope of environmental education in brief.

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Paper III : Educational Psychology and Measutement

Section : A

Q.1. The Trial and error method in learning was first experimented by :

(A) Pavlov (B) Skinner (C) WoodWorth (D) Thorndike
Q.2. Uni-facter theory was propounded by :

(A) Gilford (B) Piaget (C) Binet (D) Thorndike
Q.3. Characteristic features of a good test is :

(A) Reliability (B) Validity (C) Objectivity (D) All the above
Q.4. What should be Known For frequency distribution ?

(A) Range of Scores (B) Class interval (C) Frequencies (D) All of these.
Q.5. What Quality of man is measured by TAT ?

(A) Intelligence (B) Personality (C) Learning (D) Motivation
Q.6. Paviov did the classical conditioning test on which of the following ?

(A) Dog (B) Cat (C) Rat (D) Chimpanzee
Q.7. The most sensitive statistics is :

(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) None of these
Q.8. Which physical factor of the body least affect learning ?

(A) Fatigue (B) Maturation (C) Disease (D) Gender
Q.9. The maximum value of co-efficient of correlation may be :

(A) +1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D) .2
Q.10. Main points of Evaluation are :

(A) Educational objective (B) Learning activities (C) Change in behaviour (D) All the above .

SECTION :B

Q.1. How Educational Psychology helps a teacher ? Illustrate

.Q.2. Describe the factors influencing learning.

Q.3. Describe Thorndike's primary and subordinate law of learning.

Q.4. describe the social and emotional development in Adolescence preiod.

Q.5. How can a gifted child be properly educated ?

Q.6. What is transfer of learning ?

Q.7. Differentiate between positive and negative reinforcment.

Q.8. Describe the characteristics of creative children.

Q.9. Calculate Standard Deviation from the following:

4,7,11,20,8,15,12,18,15,1.

Q.10. Calculate the mediation from following data :

2,4,7,8,3,9,12.

section : C

Q.1. Explain the basic Concept, assumptions and laws of pavlov's theory of conditioning.

Q.2. Describe the method of constructing objective type test.

Q.3. How many dimensions have been underlined behaviour change in education ? Explain.

Q.4. Calculate Co-efficient of correlation by rank Difference method from following scores:

Group A : 40,36,37,30,25,36,31,32.

Group B : 35,30,32,31,28,26,22,25.

Q.5. Clarity the importance of section research in reference to Indian Schools.

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Paper IV : School Administration :

Section : A

Q.1. 'The Art of Administration' book written by :(A) Ordway (B) T. Paul Verghese (C) Simon (D) Camoron
Q.2. Principle of Educational Administration are :

(A) Principal of Co-operation(B) Principle of Planning(C) Principle of Leadership (D) All above mention
Q.3. 'POSDCORB' word was created by :

(A) Rusk (B) Luther Gullick (C) K. G. Saiydain (D) H.G. Wells
Q.4. While framing Time Table be cautious about :

(A) Suitability of Time(B) THe rules prescribed by Education Department(C) Fatigue of students (D) None of the above
Q.5. Supporter of the idea of Activity Centred Syllabus :

(A) Rousseau (B) Dewey (C) Ross (D) None of these.
Q.6. Establishment of junior Red Cross in india :

(A) 1950 (B) 1963 (C) 1970 (D) 1972.
Q.7. " The role of furniture is very important in physical, moral and mental development of the students."

(A) P.C. Wren (B) Amos Comenius (C) Crow & Crow (D) Crudge.
Q.8. The system of inspection of the schools began in india :

(A) 1852 (B) 1854 (C) 1882 (D) 1944.
Q.9. Number of bureaus in Education in modern time :

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 12.
Q.10. Eatable full of Vitamin 'C' is :

(A) Tomato (B) Anwala (C) Apple (D) Orange.

Section :B

Q.1. The aims of Human Resource Development Ministry.

Administrative structure of Education at local level in short.

Q.2. Differentiate the Guidence and Counselling.

Illustrate any three functionsof the principal in school Administration.

Q.3. Write in short about Co-curricular activities.

Why do you think it necessary to frame a schoolCalender ?

Q.4. Write down about the characteristics of good health.

Discuss the importance of yoga Educationin schools.

Q.5. Trace out the need of first Aid in school.

Discuss the objectives of the medical inspection of School Children.

Section : C

Q.1. What do you understand by term supervision ? What are its aims ?
Q.2. What do you mean by Discipline ? Discuss in detail about its different views.

Q.3. Name the possible points of difficulties while framing Time Table and how may they me removed ?

Q.4. What do you mean by 'health Education or Hygiene' ? What is its importance in seconds ? Also discuss briefly the aims and objectivesof health Education in Schools.

Q.5. What is the importance of pure water in the maintenance of health ? What steps should the school take to ensure the supply of pure water to its pupils ?

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Paper : V : Educational Technology

Section : A

Q.1. INSAT for Education was launched in the year :

Q.2. Which one is not the various forms of Educational Technology ?

(A) Teaching Technology (B) Instructional Technology(C) Information and Communication Technology (D) Behavviour Technology

Q.3. Introduction to Educational Technology, Bombay : Oxford and IBH Pub. Co. is written By :

(A) Passi BK (B) Kulkarni SD (C) Sharma RA (D) Singh LC.

Q.4. Define programmed learning.

Q.5. Differentiate between objectives and behavioural objectives.

Q.6. The pioneer of micro Teaching in india :

(A) Passi BK (B) Sharma RP (C) Yadav Ms (D) Sharma RA.

Q.7. Write four examples of hard-ware approach.

Q.8. Mastery Learning Model is propounded by :

Q.9. CIET is located at :

(A) Mumbai (B) Kolkata (C) New Delhi (D) Pune

Q.10. Mention any four characteristics of Micro-Teaching.

Section :B

Q.1. LIst four activities a teacher may use to create a controlled environment.

Q.2. Explain Bloom's Taxonomy.

Q.3. What precautions you will take in organising activity based instruction ?

Q.4. Compare Micro Teaching with Models of Teaching.

Q.5. Write note on the importance of PSLV (Polar Satellite Launching Vehicle) project in india.

Q.6. Elaborate the various phases of inquiry Training Model.

Q.7. Write cycle of Micro-Teaching.

Q.8. Describe the scope of computer Assisted Learning.

Q.9. How tele and Video conferencing can be used in Teacher Training Programme ? Discuss.

Q.10. Describe the concept of virtual Universities.

Section : C

Q.1. Discuss the scope of Educational Technology.

Q.2. Describe the importance of programmed learning. Discuss the features of linear programming in detail.

Q.3. Write note on the usage of Mass Media in classroom teaching.

Q.4. Describe the special features of Ausubelo's Advance organiser Model.

Q.5. Explain any two in detail:

(A) Usage of Internate

(B) Role of CIET

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Paper Sixth (B) : (II) Teaching of school Subject

Civics Teaching

Q.1. Fill in the blanks with suitable words :

(I) The word civics has involved from the Latin word......

(II) Unit method is based on ......theory in psychology.

(III) In the National Policy of Education 1986, the modern education system is based on ...... centered education.

(IV) the word curriculum belongs to .... language and means .....

(V) In non-projected aids ......is three dimensional aid.
Q.2. What do you mean by 'Human Values' ? How may the teaching of civics help to develop these values ? Elaborate with examples.
Q.3. "Civics is the science and philosophy of citizenship." In the light of this statement co-relate civics with any three of the following subjects :(I) History (II) Geography (III) Economics
Q.4. Give an account of various techniques of teaching civics. Also state which technique is best and why ?

Q.5. What is the importance of lesson plan in teaching of civics ? Prepare a detailed lesson plan of civics of Class IX.

Q.6. What are the qualities of a good text-book of civics ?

Q.7. What are the characteristics of an objective type test ? Prepare an objective type question paper for class IX containing 10 objective type questions of all varieties.

History Teaching

Write correct choice :

Q.1. (I) Best method of the study of local history is :

(A) problem method

(B) Laboratory method

(D) Socialized recitation method

(II) programme of History for National Integration at primary stage :

(A) The story of Patriots

(B) Knowledge of cultures of diffrent areas

(D) Friendly relationship between castes and communities

(III) While waiting on the black-board the teacher stands forming an angle of....degree with the black board :

(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°

(IV) Whose definition is :"History is co-related detail of incidents or thoughts."

(A) Profe.Chate

(B) Maitland

(D) Hanery Johnson

(V) Thought of Bloom related to evaluation is...........

(A) Teacher centered

(B) child centered

(D) Objective centered

Q.2. What is the importance of History in school Curriculum ? Discuss.

Q.3. What is meant by curriculum ? What chief principles of curriculum construction should be considered ? Explain.

Q.4. 'Audio and Visual aids are the best friend of History Teacher". Under the background of this statement show the type and importance of Audio--Visual aids in History Teaching.

Q.5. What is thr use of Lesson-Planning ? What are the characteristics of a good lesson plan ? Describe its important steps.

Q.6. What do you understand by the term evaluation ? Keeping in view the subject History, give examples of different types of objective question and explain their special features.

Q.7. On what basis you will select the book of History for study and give your suggestions to improve any text-book prescribed for junior High School class.

Geography Teaching.

Multiple Choice Question :

Q.1. (I) Moon receives light from the sun.----True/False

(II) Itanagar is the capital of nagaland.----True/False

(III) Maps are essential teaching aid in Geography Teaching.----True/False

(IV) Clear explanation is a main quality of good teacher.----- True/False

(V) Two effective methods of evaluation are.......True/False

Q.2. As Geography teacher what will be objectives of geography teaching at secondry level. Give an account in detail.

Q.3. What is the co-relation of Geography with the other subjects of social science ? Explain.

Q.4. Give suitable Audio-Visual Teaching aid, prepare a lesson plan of 40 minutes of class VIII.

Q.5. What are the main qualities of an ideal geography teacher at secondry leval ?

Q.6. Which methods of evaluation are suitable for geography ? Discuss with suitable examples.

Q.7. Define evaluation. Discuss the diffrent component of evaluation for tyhe text book Geography.

Economics Teaching

Q.1. Choose and write the correct answer :

(I) The teaching of Economics should be :

(A) Teacher centersd (B) Curriculum Centered(C) Student centered (D) Resources centered

(II) The quantitative data is best presented through :

(A) Chart (B) Graph (C) Diagram (D) Map

(III) "A project is a whole hearted purposeful activity proceeding in a social in a social environment."

(A) Ballard (B) Good (C) Kilpatrick (D) John Dewey.

(IV) Which teaching aid is the only visual aid ?

(A) Tape recorder

(B) Radio

(D) Television

(V) Thought of the Bloom related to evaluation is :

(A) Teacher centered

(B) Child centered

(D) Objective centered

Q.2. What are the aims of Teaching of Economics at the Higher Secondary stage ? Explain.

Q.3. What is the relationship of Economics with other subjects of social science ?

Q.4. What are the differences between method and technique ? Dicscuss any one of the method in detail followed by you in teaching Economics.

Q.5. Write notes of any two of the following :

(A) Economics room

(B) Qualities of an economics teacher

(D) Steps of lesson planning.

Q.6. Discuss the importance of text-book of economics and suggest how can you make it more useful ?

Q.7. What is objective test ? Which things should be mind during the formation of objective test and give examples of different types of objective questions

Social Science Teaching

Q.1. Write true or False about the following statement as the case may be :

(I) Main objective of social science is to clarify the present with the help of past.

(II) M. Montesorie is the founder of the project method.

(III) Opportunities are offered to the student to have investigation experience by excursion.

(IV) Model is a traditional teaching aids.

(V) Lecture method was first used is professional areas.

Q.2. Explain the need and scope of social science in india. Discuss its aims in detail.

Q.3. What is curriculum according to Secondry Education Commission ? Discuss the general principles of curriculum construction in social science.

Q.4. Prepare a detailed lesson plan on any topic of material aids in the teaching of social science for the students of class IX.

Q.5. What is the importance of material aids in the teaching of the subject ?

Q.6. What do you understand by the term evaluation in referance to social science ? What are the main components of evaluation ? Explain in detail.

Q.7. Discuss the place of objective type tests in evaluating students achievement in social science. How can these be mode more useful ?

Science Teaching

Q.1. Choose thecorrect answer and write it in your answer book :

(I) To measure the temperature which one is used ?

(A) Barometer (B) Lactometer (C) Thermometer (D) Hydrometer

(II) The temperature of a normal human body is :

(A) 212°F (B) 100°C (C) 89.5°F (D) 98.4°F

(III) Write true or false about the following statements :

(A) Matter is found in three states.

(B) Law of Gravitation was discovered by Newton.

Q.2. Explain the objectives of teaching science at secondary level.

Q.3. Explain the objectives of teaching science at secondary level.

Q.4. What is lecture cum demonstration method of teaching science ? Give briefly its own merits and two demerits.

Q.5. Prepare a lesson plan on any topic of science for secondary classes,under the following headings :Specific objectives, Presentation and recapitulation.

Q.6. What do you mean by teaching aids ? How these are classified ?

Q.7. Describe diagnostic tests and give trheir merits and demerits.

Biology Teaching

Compulsory Question

Q.1. Write 'True or False' about the following statements as the case may be :

(I) Small objective related to subject are known as General objectives.

(II) Founder Of Heuristic method is Herbert.

(III) Amodel is better than picture because it is attractive.

(IV) A demonstration method is used in direct Knowledge of process.

(V) Main components of teaching learning process are student and curriculum.

Q.2. define aims and objectives ? What are the objectives of teaching Biology ? How can we achieve these objectives ?

Q.3. Define Curruculum. Write essential factors in curriculum construction.Explain main principles of organising curriculum in Biology.

Q.4. What is Hueristic Project Method ? Describe the steps of Hueristic project method.

Q.5. Write different types of Audio -Visual teaching aids use in Biology.

Q.6. Give a biief outline of the process of item analysis.

Q.7. What are Essay types of tests ? Write Characteristics of essay type examination. Write its limitations in examination.

Mathematics Teachings

Compulsory questions :

Q.1. (I) Write four qualities of a good lesson plan.

(II) write four defects in present curriculum of mathematics.

(III) Write any four points to develop interest in mathematics should be developed ?

Q.3. Describe first four objectives of teaching mathematics.

Q.4. What are inductive and deductive methods of teaching mathematics ?

Q.5. Enlist different types of teaching aids used in teaching mathmatics.

Q.6.What is the concept of evaluation in mathematics ?

Q.7. prepare an objective types diagnostics test, carring 25 marks to identify the low achiever students in mathematics.

Home Science Teaching

Q.1. Fill in the blanks :

(A) Scurvy is caused by ...........

(B) Deficiency of Iodine is caused..............

(D) A Human Body is made up of .................of water.

Q.2. Explain with example the diffrence between aims and objectives of Home Science Teaching.

Q.3. What are the principles of teaching home science at school stage ? Explain any three of them in details.

Q.4. Prepare a detailed lesson plan on any topic of Home science for the students of class IX.

Q.5. What do you mean by audio-visual aids ? give a brief account of such aids used in Home Science teaching.

Q.6. Which points will you keep in mind while selecting a text book of Home Science for High School class ? Explain.

Q.7. What do you mean by Evaluation ? Write down the qualities of a good examination and explain the types of objective type test in detail.

GENERAL AWARNESS QUESTIONS FOR UP B.ED ENTRANCE EXAM

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1. A mixture of two or more metals is called
(a) An amalgam (b) An alkali metal (c) A noble element(d) An alloy (e) A hard metal
2. In refrigerators, the liquid used as refrigerant is
(a) Liquid carbon dioxide (b) Liquid nitrogen (c) Liquid ammonia(d) Super cooled water (e) Aerated water
3. The acid present in lemons and oranges is
(a) Acetic acid (b) Hydrochloric acid (c) Citric acid(d) oxalic acid (e) Sulphuric acid
4. A missile when projected into the air follows
(a) An elliptical path (b) A straight line path (c) A parabolic path(d) A hyperbolic path (e) A circular path
5. Water is not effective in extinguishing a fire caused by petrol, because
(a) The flame is too hot for water to cool it down(b) Water and petrol react chemically(c) Petrol and water are miscible with each other.(d) Water and petrol are immiscible with each other Petrol forms the upper layer andcontinues to burn(e) Petrol makes the water evaporate very soon
6. The richest source of protein is
(a) Soyabean (b) Meat (c) Milk(d) Eggs (e) Wheat
7. Sound waves cannot travel through
(a) Water (b) Steel (c) Vacuum(d) Air (e) Plastic
8. Black soil is an ideal soil for(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Cotton(d) Millets (e) Cane sugar
9. Atmospheric pressure is measured with a
(a) Hydrometer (b) Barometer (c) Hygrometer(d) Altimeter (e) Voltmeter
10. Food is cooked faster in a pressure cooker because
(a) Heat cannot escape from the cooker(b) Steam is hotter than the boiling water(c) High pressure raises the boiling point of water(d) In the cooker, water starts boiling at a lower temperature(e) None of these
11. The three primary colours are
(a) Blue, green and red (b) Blue, yellow and red(c) Yellow, orange and red (d) Violet, indigo and blue(e) Blue, yellow and green
12. The device used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called
(a) A cell (b) A transformer (c) A dynamo(d) An electric motor (e) A generator
13. Hard water does not lather well with soap because
(a) It contains carbonates of calcium and magnesium(b) It is highly coloured(c) It contains suspended impurities(d) It contains sodium chloride(e) It dissolves the soap
14. Common salt is
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Magnesium carbonate(d) Sodium carbonate (e) Calcium chloride
15. Ozone is important to mankind because it
(a) Releases hydrogen in the atmosphere(b) Maintains the temperature of the earth(c) Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays(d) Releases oxygen in the air(e) Destroys poisonous gases
16. Cataract, a discease of the eye is due to
(a) Lens turning opaque (b) Damage to cornea (c) Tearing of retina(d) Dislodgement of retina (e) None of these
17. A doctor advised a patient not to eat the things containing sugar. He advised on accountof the symptoms of the disease
(a) Cancer (b) Diabetes (c) AIDS(d) Allergy (e) None of these
18. The stars appear twinkling because:
(a) On account of their greater distance from the earth
(b) Their light before reaching us passes through different medium
(c) Their lights takes too much time before reaching us
(d) These are situated very high above our heads
(e) None of these
19. Sudden falling of the mercury in barometer predicts that weather will be
(a) Still and stable (b) Rainy (c) Excessive hot (d) Stormy (e) None of these
20. On which scale is the temperature of the human body measured by the Doctors?
(a) Kelvin (b) Celsius (c) Fahrenheit(d) Reumer (e) None of these
21. The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is
(a) Altimeter (b) Anemometer (c) Chronometer(d) Dosimeter (e) None of these
22. Who defined the law of Gravitation?
(a) Newton (b) Anemometer (c) Chronometer(d) Dosimeter (e) None of these
23. ‘IC’ in computers stands for
(a) Integrated Charge (b) Integrated Current (c) Integrated Circuits(d) Interior circuit (e) None of these
24. In a rechargeable cell, what kind of energy is stored within the cell?
(a) Electrical energy (b) Potential energy (c) Chemical energy(d) Kinetic energy (e) None of these
25. The property of a body that stops it from coming into motion is called
(a) Equilibrium (b) Momentum (c) Intertia(d) Acceleration (e) None of these
26. The by-product obtained by soap industry is
(a) Caustic Soda (b) Glycerol (c) Naphthalene(d) Caustic Potash (e) None of these
27. Ripe grapes contain
(a) Fructose (b) Sucrose (c) Galactose(d) Glucose (e) None of these
28. Which of the following is pure water?
(a) Rain water (b) Filter water (c) Tube-well water(d) Distilled water (e) None of these
29. Which silver salt is used for making film for photography?
(a) Silver bromide (b) Silver chloride (c) Silver sulphate (d) Silver nitrate
30. Which is the reproductive organ of a plant?
(a) Fruit (b) Seed (c) Flower(d) Stem (e) Buds
ANSWER
1(c) 2(d) 3(b) 4(b) 5(e) 6(a) 7(c) 8(a) 9(b) 10(d) 11(c)12(d) 13(a) 14(b) 15(c) 16(b) 17(a) 18(a) 19(c) 20(d) 21(b) 22(b)23(d) 24(b) 25(a) 26(c) 27(a) 28(c) 29(d) 30(b)

For more general awarness questions write to

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TEST OF REOSONINING IN BANK EXAM

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Question : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the English alphabet and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

1. AZ 2. EV 3. BY 4. GT 5. DU Answer : ( 5 ) Explanation : Other pairs occupy the same place in alphabets from A and Z.

Question : If '$' means '×', '#'means '÷', '*' means '?' and '@' means '+' then what is the value of 204 # 6 * 15 $ 8 @ 88.

1. 8 2. 2 3. ?6 4. 12 5. None of these Answer : ( 2 ) Explanation : 204 ÷ 6 ? 15 × 8 + 88 = 34 ? 120 + 88 = 2. (Apply BODMAS)

Question : If the position of the first and the sixth letters of the word 'PRESCRIBED' are interchanged, similarly position of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged and so on. Which letter will be fourth from the left end after the rearrangement?

1. E 2. S 3. B 4. D 5. None of these Answer : ( 1 ) Explanation : Left ? RIBEDPRESS ? Right

Question : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTERNAL, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. None of these Answer : ( 4 ) Explanation : IN, TR and NL
Question : In a certain code DIVERT is written as SCQHDU, how is CONFER written in that code?

1. QBDNEO 2. QDBNEM 3. QBDNEM 4. QDBNEO 5. None of these Answer : ( 3 ) Explanation : D I V E R T would be TDRIEV hence CONFER would be RCEOFN. The preceding letter in alphabets is the code

Question : In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
A country cannot develop without fast and easy communication.
Courses of action:
I. Govt. should provide communication facilities to the public at a cheaper rate.
II. More private companies should be permitted to enter into field of communication to strengthen the network.

1. if only I follows. 2. if only II follows. 3. if either I or II follows. 4. if neither I nor II follows. 5. if both I and II follow. Answer : ( 5 )
Question : Statement:?Due to availability of air tickets at cheaper rates from various airlines large no. of people now a days prefer to travel by air than travelling by train.?
Courses of action:
I. Railway ministry has to put in its best efforts to improve the quality of rail journey in respect of facilities and also the punctuality.

II. Airlines should not be allowed to introduce various schemes offering concessional fare.

1. if only I follows. 2. if only II follows. 3. if either I or II follows. 4. if neither I nor II follows. 5. if both I and II follow. Answer : ( 1 )

Question : Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
Continuous use of computers is affecting the eyesights of many youth.
Courses of action:
I. All the establishments should permit the people using computer to take a short break after every hour of work on the computer.
II. Use of computers should be discouraged by the managements of the establishments. 1. if only I follows. 2. if only II follows. 3. if either I or II follows. 4. if neither I nor II follows. 5. if both I and II follow. Answer : ( 1 )

Question : Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
Proportion of females compared to that of males in the population of our country has drastically gone down in
the recent past.
Courses of action:
I. Social workers shoule take up the task of emphasizing the importance of having atleast one female child in each family in both rural and urban areas of the counry.
II. Government should severely punish the persons involved in the practice of female foeticide.

1. if only I follows. 2. if only II follows. 3. if either I or II follows. 4. if neither I nor II follows. 5. if both I and II follow. Answer : ( 5 )

Question : Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
Reading habits in the children of coming generations is diminishing day by day.
Courses of action:
I. Access to various electronic gadgets such as television, computer and particularly the internet
should be controlled.
II. Parents should ensure and cultivate reading habits among their children.

1. if only I follows. 2. if only II follows. 3. if either I or II follows. 4. if neither I nor II follows. Answer : ( 2 )

Question : (Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer this question.)
Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order.
Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G and previous day of Channel D. Programme 'P' is telecast before Programme 'U'.
Which programme is telecast on Thursday?

1. P 2. S 3. R 4. U 5. None of these Answer : ( 5 )

Question : (Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer this question.)
Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order.
Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G and previous day of Channel D. Programme 'P' is telecast before Programme 'U'.

Which of the following combination of daychannel-programme is correct?

1. Thursday'C'R 2. Tuesday'C'Q 3. Saturday'E'U 4. Monday'E'P 5. None of these

Answer : ( 3 )

Question : (Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer this question.)
Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order.
Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G and previous day of Channel D. Programme 'P' is telecast before Programme 'U'.

Which channel telecasts on Wednesday? 1. F 2. E 3. G 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these Answer : ( 3 )

Question : (Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer this question.)
Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order.
Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G and previous day of Channel D. Programme 'P' is telecast before Programme 'U'.
Channel 'C' telecasts on which day of the week?

1. Thursday 2. Tuesday 3. Friday 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these Answer : ( 1 )

Question : (Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer this question.)
Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order.Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G and previous day of Channel D. Programme 'P' is telecast before Programme 'U'.
Which channel telecasts programme 'S'?

1. E 2. D 3. F 4. D or E 5. None of these Answer : ( 2 )

Question : Directions: In making decisions about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.

Should there be a quota for underprivileged categories and the minority communities for admissions into the
premier educational institutions in India?

Arguments:
I. No, admissions to the premier institutes should be only on merit and there should be no system for any special consideration.
II. No, this will put the deserving non-reserved category students to disadvantage.

1. if only argument I is strong. 2. if only argument II is strong. 3. if either argument I or II is strong. 4. if neither argument I nor II is strong. 5. if both arguments I and II are strong. Answer : ( 1 )

Question : Directions: In making decisions about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Can the total ban on dance bars across a State be justified?
Arguments:
I. Yes, running of dance bars gives scope for various illegal and criminal activities.
II. No, the livelihood of the families of bar-girls is totally dependent on the dance bars.

Question : Directions: In making decisions about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Should the top officials and politicians detained by the law enforcement agencies be given special treatment in jails while under-trial?
Arguments:
I. No, there is no such need for any special treatment, they should be treated like all other detainees.
II. Yes, it is necessary to take care of their special security requirements.

Question : Directions: In making decisions about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Should stricter discipline be imposed upon all the children by parents and teachers in view of the increasing
criminal cases among the youth?
Arguments:
I. Yes, too much freedom to the children is leading to such cases of crime.
II. No, freedom to the children is necessary in the changing social scenario.

Question : Directions: In making decisions about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Should the gender-reassignment surgeries be legally permitted?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is the genuine need of the transsexuals.
II. No, people will take disadvantage of the facility since it is difficult to judge the genuineness of the requirement.

MARKETING RELATED QUESTIONS FOR SBI PO EXAM

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For each of the following does not statements please choose the correct alternative:

Q.1. The following does not represent a market situation:

(A) A bank run dispensary located in its staff quarters

(B) A fund raising chairity show for the members of an NGO

(D) A stall distributing kada prasad in a gurudwara.

(E) None of these

Ans-(D)
Q.2. The markets are grouped into different types based on the geographical area, location of market palace , product,nature of transaction, and volume of the transaction :

In the above statement the following is not correct:

(A) Nature of transaction

(B) Geographical area

(D) Volume of transaction

(E) None of these

Ans-(C)

Q.3. The following offering is not a service :

(A) Fixed deposit receipt

(B) Postage stamp

(D) Insurance Policy

Ans-(C)
Q.4. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is called as a (n)....

(A) Transaction (B) Exchange (C) Relationship (D) Value Ans-(B)
Q.5. Economists use the term......to refer to a collection of buyers and sellers who transact in a particular product class :

(A) Customer (B) Market (C) Experience (D) None of these

Ans-(B).
Q.6. Out of the items mentioned below,......is not a product:

(A) Lecture by Shri Sudhansu Maharaj

(B) Simla

(D) None of these

Ans-(C)
Q.7. A product line is a group of related products that function in a similar manner, are sold to the same customer groups, and marketed through the same type of outlets :

(A) Group (B) Line (C) Category (D) Market

Ans- (B)

Q.8. Goods that are typically bought by a consumer based on a comparison of suitability, quality, price,and style are called.....goods:

(A) Industrial (B) Speciality (C) Shopping (D) Convenience

Ans-(C)
Q.9. Out of the following,.....is not one of the three levels of a product :

(A) Core (B) Augmented (C) Actual (D) Fragmented

Ans-(D)

Q.10. Out of the following,.....is not an objective of pricing :

(A) Profit

(B) Stabilising demand and sales of the product

(D) Expansion of business

Ans-(D).

Q.11. Abank has a special product for senior citizens which provides cheque book on saving account with customer name on chaque book, free of cost debit card with over draft facility of rs 15,000, a special pouch for holding passbook, cheque book and debit card, facility for withdrawal and deposites at any branch of the bank,free of cost remittances to any branch of the bank, and free of cost remittances to any branch of another bank covered under RTGS facility. Which of the following is the core product in this offering ?

(A) Overdraft

(B) Remittances

(D) None of these

Ans : (C).
Q.12. Of the following pricing methods,......is not based on competitors pricing :

(A) English Auction

(B) Sealed--Bid Auction

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)
Q.13. Of the following pricing strategies,......is not ideal for new products :

(A) Market-Skimming

(B) Discriminatory Pricing

(C)Promotional Pricing

(D) None of these

Ans: (B)
Q.14.A...discount is offered by the seller to intermediary who performs functionslike selling, storing and record keeping :

(A) Quantity

(B) Trade

(D) Seasonal

Ans : (B)
Q.15. In market skimming pricing strategy :

(A) Initially price is lower and then it is increased

(B) Initially price is higher and then it is reduced

(D) None of these

Ans : (B)
Q.16. Bank of Mathura is offering 1% higher interest rate on fixed diposite to senior citizens of 60 years and above. It is practising...... :

(A) Promotional pricing

(B) Psychological pricing

(D) Product mix pricing

Ans : (C)
Q.17. with....pricing, the products are priced below list price (or even below cost)for a temporary period to create buying urgency :

(A) Reference

(B) By-product

(D) Market penetration

Ans : (C)
Q.18. Of the following pricing methods,....is not cost-based method.

(A) Value pricing

(B) Target-return pricing

(D) Marginal cost pricing

Ans : (A).

For more questions & answers marketing Related mailed to examinindia@gmailcom

BIHAR PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISION (Pre.) EXAM.2008

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GENERAL STUDIES (held on 25-5-2008)
Q.1. What is sequence number of Ms. Pratibha patil as President of the Republic of India ?
(A) 10th (B) 11th (C) 12th (D) 13th
Q.2. Abill presented in parliament becomes an act after--
(A) It is passed by Both the Housees
(B) The president has given his assent
(C) The prime Minister has Signed it
(D) The supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence of the Union-Parliament
Q.3. According to our constitution the Rajya-sabha--
(A) Is desolved once in two years (B) In desolved every five years. (C) Is dissolved every six years (D) Is not subject of dissolution
Q.4. A High Court Judge Addresses his letter of resignation to--
(A) The President (B) The Chief Justice of India (C) The Chief Justice of High court (D) the Governor of the state
Q.5. As a non-member who can Participatein the proceedings of either House of parliament--
(A) Vice-President(B) Chief Justice (C) Attorny-General (D) Chief Election Commisioner
Q.6. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Consititution of India by the--(A) 32nd Amendment Act (B) 42nd Amendment Act (C) 15th Amendment Act (D) 46th Amendment Act
Q.7. How many Languages are recognised as regional language in the constittution ?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 22
Q.8. Consider the following the words:
1.Socialist 2. Democratic 3. Sovereign 4.secular
Q.9. In which house is the presiding officer not a member of that house ?
(A) Lok-Sabha (B) Rajya-sabha (C) Vidhan-sabha (D) Vidhan-Parishad
Q.10.By which constitutional amendment bill was the voting age redused from 21 years to 18 years ?
(A) 48th (B) 57th (C) 61st (D) 63rd
ANSWER-- 1.(C) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(A) 5.(C) 6.(B) 7.(D) 8.(A) 9.(B) 10.(C).
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q.11. If the position of President and Vice-president are vacant, who officiates at the president of india ? (A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Speaker of Lok-Sabha
(D) None of these

Q.12. A panchayat samiti at the block level is--
(A) An advisory body
(B) An Administrative authority
(C) A consultant Committee
(D) A supervisory authority

Q.13. Acording to the world bank's leatast development report, the position of the indian economy in the world is the ---
(A) Largest
(B) Smallest
(C) Second Largest
(D) Fifth Largest

Q.14. If the cash reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, it's impact oncredt creation will be--
(A) Increase it
(B) Decrease it
(C) No impact
(D) None of the other

Q.15. Indian Development Forum (IDF) was earlier Known as ---
(A) Aid India Consortium
(B) Aid India Bank
(C) World Bank
(D) None of these

Q.16. It will be true to classify India as--
(A) A food-deficit economy
(B) A labour-surplus economy
(C) A trade surpluse economy
(D) A capital surplus economy

Q.17. Modvat is related to--
(A) sales Tax (B) Wealth Tax (C) Income Tax (D) Excise Duty

Q.18. The eleventh plan's objective is--
(A) Removal of poverty
(B) Inclusive growth
(C) Growth with social-justice
(D) Development of minorities

Q.19. Rainbow revolution is related with--
(A) Green-revolution (B) White-revolution (C) Blue-revolution (D) All the above

Q.20. The one rupee note bears the signature of the--
(A) Secretary, Ministry of finance
(B) Governor,RBI
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these
Answer : 11. (B) 12.(B) 13.(D) 14. (A) 15.(A) 16.(B) 17.(D) 18.(B) 19.(D) 20.(A).

GK--TEST (Latest).FOR B.ED EXAM

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GK--TEST Fill in the blanks.
1. ………is a well known eye surgeon philan theropist
2. Of late Kapil Dev has taken to ………. (Game)
3. There is temple for Duryodhana near………..
4. Vijay Mallya is a well known ………..baron
5. Umaid Bhavan place (hotel) is in………
6. …………. is the only Trans national company in the top 50.
7. With what game is Jehangir Khan associated?
8. Rohinton Baria Trophy relates to Inter University…………
9. Lata Dhyan chand was wizard in……….
10. Michael Jordan is a well known …………….. Player
11. GM (grandmaster)is a title in……….
12. Limbaram is well known in ………
13. Monica Seles entered the…….open (Tennis) Finals
14. Pete Sampras (Australian open) was eliminated by…………
15. MRF hosts a star TV progamme (Cricket)………
16. K Yokoyama is the Secreatary of …….. Volley ball confederation
17. Mohan Bagan and East Bengal are Well known ……… teams
18. George Foremen and Michael Moore are well known ………….
19. Santosh Trophy (India) is for…………
20. Indira Gandhi Gold cup is for………...
21. World Volley ball champions(94) is …….
22. ………. Has won World cup football 4 times
23. Geet Sethi is a well known ………..Player
24. Chiranjeevi Milkha Singh Has made a name in……..
25. The first Olympics was held in…….. at……….
ANSWERS
1. M.C. Mody
2. Golf
3. Dehradun
4. Liquor]
5. Jodhpur
6. TISCO
7. Squash
8. Cricket
9. Hockey
10. Basket ball
11. Chess
12. Archery
13. Australian
14. Mark Philippoussis
15. BODY LINE
16. Asian
17. Football
18. Boxers
19. Football
20. hockey
21. Italy
22. Brazil
23. Billiards
24. Golf
25. 1896,Athens.

Test Of Quantitative Reasoning (Number Series)

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Test Of Quantitative Reasoning (Number series)
1} 13, 35, 57, 79, 911, _________(a) 1113 (b) 1110 (c) 1112 (d) 1315
2 } 4, 6, 8, 9, 10 , _________(a) 11 (b) 12 (c)13 (d)17
3} 7, 13, 23, 41, 75, _______(a) 139 (b) 141 (c) 143 (d) 145
4} 121, 232, 353, 474, 5115, ________(a) 7611 (b) 125 (c) 6135 (d) 6136
5} 2, 12, 34, 74, 138, __________(a) 192 (b) 202 (c) 212 (d) 232
6} 2, 7, 14, 23, 34, ____(a) 47 (b) 57 (c) 49 (d) 48
7} 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, ____(a) 85 (b) 86 (c) 87 (d) 89
8} 6, 13, 25, 51, 101, _______(a) 201 (b) 202 (c) 203 (d) 205
9} 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ____(a) 132 (b) 121 (c) 130 (d) 129
10} 2, 5, 13, 31, 69, ___(a) 111 (b) 121 (c) 128 (d) 147
11} 721, 618, 515, 412, 309 ______(a) 206 (b) 216 (c) 245 (d) 212
12} 8, 24, 48, 80, 120, _____(a) 158 (b) 162 (c) 164 (d)168
13} 7, 65, 215, 513, 999, _________(a) 1011 (b) 1528 (c) 1729 (d) 1829
14} 11, 14, 24, 41, 65, ______(a) 91 (b) 93 (c) 96 (d) 98
15} 23, 27, 43, 79, 143, ________(a) 243 (b) 242 (c) 241 (d) 240
16} 4, 8, 28, 80, 34, _____(a) 278 (b) 428 (c) 628 (d) 728
17} 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, _____(a) 27 (b) 29 (c) 31 (d) 37
18} 12, 14, 17, 22, 29, ________(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (d) 38
19} 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ____(a) 112 (b) 100 (c)121 (d)144
20} 13, 25, 51, 111, 203, ________(a) 405 (b) 406 (c) 407 (d) 411
21} 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, _____(a) 216 (b) 217 (c) 215 (d) 219
22} 3, 15, 35, 63, 99, ____(a) 13 (b) 137 (c) 139 (d) 143
23} 2, 7, 24, 77, 238, ____(a) 723 (b) 733 (c) 721 (d) 725
24} 999, 730, 511, 344, 215, _____(a) 123 (b) 124 (c) 125 (d) 126
25} 10, 19, 36, 69, 134, ____(a) 266 (b) 268 (c) 263 (d) 261
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) Successive odd numbers.
2 (b) These are composite numbers,next to 10 , 12 is such number
3 (b) Double each number and subtract 1,3,5,7 etc from the result.
4 (d) Extreme numbers are increased by one and in the middle there is a prime number.
5 (d) Difference of 2 successive terms are 10,22,40,64.. again the diff among these is 12,18,24 . Thus the differences between 138 and next term is 64 +30 ie 94. Therefore by this logic the next term would be 138 +94 = 232.
6 (a) Differences are 5,7,9,11,13,15 …
7 (d) A prime number series
8 (c) Double the number and then operate +1 and -1 alternately.
9 (a) Differences of two successive terms are increasing by8. Thus the next term would be 90 + 42 + 132
10(d) Double the number and to them respectively 1,3,5,7,9 etc.
11 (a) The numbers are decreasing by 103.
12 (d) Differences of the terms are increasing by 8.
13 (c) 2³- 1 , 4³ +1, 6³-1, 8³+1, 10³-1 ,12³+1…so on
14 (c) Differences are increasing by 7
15 (a) Differences of two successive numbers are as 2²,4²,6²,8²,10² so on
16 (d) The terms are written as 31+1, 3²-1, 3³+1, 34-1, 35+1, 36-1 etc
17 (b) A Prime number series
18 (a) Differences of two successive terms are the prime numbers 2,3,5,7,11 etc . Hence the next numbers are 29 + 11 = 40.
19 (c) Squares of odd numbers.
20 (a) Double the numbers and operate -1 and +1 respectively.
21 (c) 1³+1, 2³-1, 3³+1, 4³-1, 5³+1, 6³-1 and so on.
22 (d) Differences of two successive terms are 12,20,28,36,44 and so on
23 (a) Multiply the numbers by 3 and then add 1,3,5,7,11,13 etc.
24 (d) 10³-1, 9³+1, 8³-1, 7³+1, 6³-1, 5³+1 etc
25 (c) Double the numbers and subtract from the result 1,2,3,4,5 .........

UTTAR PRADESH P.C.S.(Pre.)EXAM.2004

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General studies (Held on 25-5-2008)
Q.1. Which one of the following revolutionaries is not associated with kakori Conspiracy case ?
(A) Ram Prasad Bismil(B) Roshan singh(C) Bhagat Singh(D) Ashfaque-ullah khan
Q.2. The province where indian National congress Did not form Ministry after the general elections of 1937 was--
(A) Orissa (B) Bihar (C) Madras (D) Bengal
Q.3. Who of the following was not amongst the lawers to fight the case of Indian National Army in 1946 in the Delhi Red Fort trial?
(A) Bhulabhai Desai
(B) Pandi Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Dr.Kailash Nath Katju
Q.4. With which dynasty of rulars would you associate the construction of the famous Kailash temple of Ellora ?
(A) Pallavas (B) Cholas (C) Rastrakutas (D) Chalukyas
Q.5. Name the first recorded Muslim Revolutionary who was hanged for India's independence.
(A) Mohammad Ali (B) Shaukat Ali (C) Ashfaque-ullah Khan (D) Azizuddin
Q.6. The person who on April 4,1919, delivered a speech on Hindu Muslim Unity from the pulpit of jama masjid in Delhi was--
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Mahamana Malviya (C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) Swami shradhanand
Q.7. The suggestion for the boycott of the british goods was first made by--
(A) Arvind Ghosh
(B) Krishna Kumar Mishra
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Surendranath banerji
Q.8. Arvind Ghosh was depended in the Alipore Bomb case by--
(A) B.C Pal (B) MotiLal Nehru (C) Bhulabhai Desai (D) C.R.Das
Q.9. In which of the following jails, the book'Discovery of India'was written by Jawaher Lal Nehru?
(A) Alipur central jail (B) Ahmadnagar Fort Jail (C) Yervada Jail (D) Deoli Camp Jail
Q.10. The person who returned his token of honour to Government of india on may 30,1919 was--
(A) Jamna Lal Bajaj (B) Tej Bahadur Sapru (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D)Rabindranath Tagore
ANSWER--1.(C) 2.(D) 3.(D) 4.(C) 5.(C) 6.(A) 7.(C) 8.(D) 9.(B) 10.(D)

INDIAN BANK OFFICERS EXAM.08

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NABARD BANK OFFICERS EXAM.08 Reosining

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PNB Agriculture Officers Exam.08 Professional Knowledge

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CIVIL SERVICES (Pre. ) Exam.08 Economics

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CIVIL SERVICES (Pre. ) Exam.08 Public Administratiion

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VIJAYA BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM.2008

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(Held on 2-3-2008)Descriptive Language
Q.1. Heavy industries and labour intensive small indusries cannot exist together.Do you agree?comment as to how these two have co-existed in our country ?
Q.2. Poverty is a curse no doubt, but poverty is also not a cure for all the ills to ensure social welfare of the people.Comments.
Q.3. 'India's strength lies in its people.'Do you agree with this statement ?

Answer. Undoubtedly, India's strength lies in its people, through which,economic and social development ispossible.Therefore, the 'Labour policy'in india has evolved in response to specifice needs of the situationto suit requirments of planed economic development and social justice, so as to maintain industrial peaceand promoting the welfare of labour accordingly ,several acts have been framed like : the minimum Wages Act,1948;payment of wages Act,1936, Payment of bonus Act 1965;Industrial Disputes Act,1947, Maternity Benefit Act,1961,Employees state insurance Act 1948,Payment of gratuity Act 1972, etc. Through these framed acts, the people working in various sectors viz.Industries ,Education,Agro-Industries, Post Office/Railway Management etc.Get justice and remain happy.In fact,it is our strength.
India has -10 Bio-Geographic Zones; 14 Biosphere Reserves; 15 Agro-Climatic Zones; 20 Agro-Ecological Zones(AEZ)and 60 AESZ(AE Sub-Zones), where various types of vegetation/Forest;Crops Medicinal/Tea/Bamboo cultivation,Animals etc.Can easily be seen and so also ,India has 2 Bio-diversity Region,out of world 14 Bio-diversity Regions,situated at East-West Coasts and Ne regions, Which is a proud to us. The peopleresiding in these belts, in fact,this is our strength.
Q.4. What is microfinancing and how its progressing in our country ? Discuss.

Answer. Micro-financing means small amount of monetry finance, normally given for small sector sector of development i.e. small loans provided to 'poor to poor' for small sector improvement;which is given for many purposes; for example--small savings,loan credit,social safety like insurance etc.

The credit amount may vary from Rs. 5,000 to Rs. 25,000 of which return/back guarantee is 100% and the total payment is done with in 1 to 3 years. In this system, the credit is available as per people needs like KCC (Kisan Credit Card).
The best example of micro financing given to SHG’s (Self-Help Groups), having 10-12 participants and all get benefits of it, especially to establish small agro-based industries.
In fact, the poverty in our country is more, having a wide gap between capitalists and poor men. Therefore, micro-financing is in progress, with the men objective for providing this micro-finance to ‘poor to poor’, which is the need of the time and future also.
Q. 5 Discuss about the gender inequality in our country and its impact on our socio-economical development.
Ans. One of the important indices of population concentration is the density of population i.e. number of persons/km2, which was 324 per km2 in census 2001; being maximum 903 per km2-West Bengal, 881, per km2-Bihar (Second) and 819 per km2-Kerala (Third place).
Sex ratio i.e. number of females per 1000 males is an important social indicator to measure the extent of prevailing equality between males and females; which had always remained unfavourable to females in our country. As per the Census w.e.f. year 1901-2001, there appeared a decline in sex ratio, that can be observed from these Censuses-
Sex Ratio (1901-2001)

Census Year=============Sex Ratio (Females per 1,000 males)

1901=====================972

1911=====================964

1921=====================955

1931=====================950

1941=====================945

1951=====================946

1961=====================941

1971=====================930

1981=====================934

1991=====================926

2001=====================933

Women play a significant role in agriculture in the country, which has a direct relationship with our socioeconomic development. Since, women have a vital role in agriculture-especially in the field of Horticulture- Floriculture (flower cultivation), Pomology (fruit cultivation) and Olericulture (vegetable production), paddy transplanting, weeding/interculture in crops, harvesting, and Animal Husbandry and Dairy Sector, especially the SC/ST and Non SC women etc. NRC-WA (National Research Centre for Women in Agriculture-ICAR) Bhubaneshwar (Orissa) is doing an excellent work for empowerment of women in agricultural research and technology transfer and found that 43.7% of women’s time goes to agriculture. If the sex ratio goes down. It will surely adversely affect the socio-economic development of the society.

FORTHCOMING EXAMS In -2008-2009

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2008
National Talent Search Exam, 2009 (Class 8th) (Stage-I) (Closing Date:30-08-08)(Nov. 15)
State Bank of India P.O. (Main) Exam. (Nov. 30)
S.S.C. Section Officers (Audit) Exam., 2008 (Closing Date : 18 Aug., 2008) (Nov. 30)
Indian Air Force Airmen Group ‘Y’ Trades Exam. (Nov.) RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2008 (Closing Date : 14 Aug., 2008)(Dec. 21)

National Institute of ImmunologyCourse: Admission to Ph.D Programme for the Academic Year 2009-2010.

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Xet Exam Date : 4 Jan 2009 (Closing Date : 5 Dec. 2008 )

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CIVIL SERVICES (Main) EXAM, 2007 Solved Paper

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General Studies Paper--1
Q.1. Answer any one of the following Questions in about 250 words:

(A) What was the character of socio-religious reforms in 19th century and how did they contribute to national awakening in india ?
(B) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to constitutional reforms ,disillusionment and militant anticolonial struggles.Elucidate.
Ans. (A) The socio-religious reforms in 19th century were oriented towards restructuring the Indian Society along the modern lines and for growth of national unity and solidarity. Rationlism was the most significant element of these movements wherein socio-reliogious practices were judged onthe stand point of their social and contemporary relevence . The rationale behind taking together both social and religious aspects was the religious one being closely interwoven with social structure.The social norms were determined by religious tenets, hence both aspects had to be reformed.
Another important character was that they do not stand for structural transformation of society ,rather for changes in broad social framework. There was no total rejection of tradion nor was it blind imitation of westernization, it was to be on intellectual and creative process through which Indian culture and thought were to be renovated as postulated by Raja Rammohan Roy.Therefore its Key-notes were modernizingand rational approach. Reform movemwntalso sought to influence the political authority,administration and legislation as was evident in socio-cultural policy of colonial rulars. On the whole,these movements were progressive in nature as they aimed at attainment of scientifically engineered change and social salvation. The reform movements fostered a new consciousness--Social cultural and above all critical which led to introspection of traditional ethos and identificationof socio-religious evils.It revived the faith in indian glory, self respect andself pride which was supported by theosophical society.As a result of reformedoutlook,many indians began to acquire modern, secular and national outlook.It aimed at achieving the following objectives--emancipation of women and extensionof equal rights to them,removal of cast rigidities esp.Untouchability and also to spread education. Numerous Individuals like Raja Rammohan Roy,Pt.IshwerchandVidhyasagar,Henry V.Derozio,reform societies and religious organisations worked hard to spreededucation among women,to encourage widow remarriage,prevent childmarriage, to bring women out of purdah.The manifestation of the above could be seen in the active role played by women in freedom struggle.
As modern democratic rationalist ideas spread among indians they vehemently opposed caste system.Brahmo Samaj,Arya Samaj,Prarthna Samaj,Ramkrishna Mission and nearly all great reformers attecked it. As a result ofawakening,the lower castes rose in defence of their rights. Thus socio-religiousreform movements infused self pride and nationalistic outlook which greatly contributed to national awakening.
(B)By 1919,the colonial rule was not able to fulfil the demands and aspirationsof indians,who felt cheated by promises made by the british during first world warand were disillusioned with the exploitative designs of rowllat Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacare.Urgent need was felt for constitutional reformes and the council act of 1919was introduced which advocated dual governance and expensionof legislature which further failed to satsfy the indian demands .Unrealised promisesled to rise of mass movements like non co-operation movement and later civil disobedience movement. These mass movements under the charismatic leadership of gandhiji, gave an expresssion of more aggressive and redical kind of nationalism.
The sudden withdrawal of non co-operationMovement and suspension of civil disobedience movement,shattered the faith of young congressmenand they lost allegiance to gandhian techniques of mass struggle.This gave rise to Revolutionary terrorism which had firm connection to overthrow british rule by striking terror and violence.Organisationslike hindustan republican Association and Hindustan Republican socialist Association organised action against British rule.
The Act of 1935 was also disappointing,as it failed to fulfil the purna swaraj demand of the nation.Pt. nehru described it was unwanted,undemocratic and anti national Act. Congress fought election (according to provisions of 1935 Act)and formed state Ministriesbut resigned in1937 on the issue of involvement in second world war which again created problems for the British Goverment. Therefore the period1919-1939 was a period of turmoil for colonial empire as its weakening administrative mechanism was evident in front of the rising tide of indian Nationalism.

Q.2 Answer any two of the following questions in about 150 words each:

(a) What are the salient features of Govt. of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?

(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi’s support to Khilaftat Movement had diluted his secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.

(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the cause of India’s struggle for Independence?

Ans.(a) The following are salient features of –Act of 1858

1. The Act transferred the Indian Administration to British Crwon and changed the designation of Governor General to ‘The Vicorey of India’

2. The powers related to government and revenues of India, were to be exercised by secretary of state for India who would by aided by a council of 15 Members (8-nominated by Crown and 7 elected by Directors). The secretary of state was to be a member of British Cabinet and responsible to British Parliament.

3. The Council of India was to be an advisory body and was presided by secretary of state who was empowered to override the majority. However, he could not do so in financial matteres.

4. The Act empowered the crown to appoint the Viceroy of India and Governors of presidencies. The Viceroy was empowered to appoint Lt. Governors with crown’s approval.Act of 1909

1. Expansion of Councils : The number of additional members (legislative) in Viceroy’s Executive Council was raised from 16 to 60, Legislative Councils of Madras, Bengal and Bombay were increased to 50 members each.

2. The legislative council consisted of four categories of members Ex officio members nominated officials, nominated no-officials and elected members. Official majority was retained in Imperial legislative council but it was given up in provinces.

3. Introduction of Communal Electorates- Muslims were given 2 privileges-direct representation and right of plural voting.

4. The Act of 1909 for the fists time gave recognition to elective principle for appointment of non official members to councils but it was restricted and discriminatory franchise.

5. The members of the legislative council could discuss the budged and pass resolution and they could also ask supplementary questions.

6. The size of executive councils of Governors in Bombay and Madras increased to four and Indians were appointed in them.(b) There is no valid reason to believe that Mahatma Gandhi’s support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular credentials because Gandhi viewed the Khilafat agitation as golden opportunity for consolidation Hindu-Muslim unity and bringing the Muslim masses into the national movement. Gandhiji realised that India which is highly fragmented, different sects, religios ideology, race, and cultural people can only be uited through mass movement. This mass movement would provide them platform to fight for their own different demands and seeing that the alien regime stood in opposition to them. Gandhiji looked upon the Khilafat agitation as “an opportunity of uniting Hindus and Muslims as would not arise in a hundred years”. Muslim and Hindu bond got cemented. Muslim leaders gave a call to refrain from slaughtering cow on Bakra Id. Swami Shradhanand delivered a speech from Jama Masjid Delhi. Hindu and Muslim workers began to drill together. The English government declared it illegal. Gandhi involvement in the Khilafat movement had brought urban muslims into the nationalist movement and had been thus responsible in part for the feeling of nationalist enthusiasm and exhilatation that prevailed in the country in those days. Gandhiji to some extent failed in raising the religious political consciousness of the Muslims to the higher plane of secular political consciousness. At the same time it should also be kept in view that the Khilafat movement represented much wider feeling of the Muslims than their concern for the Caliph. It was in reality an aspect of the genereal spread of anti imperialist feelings among the Muslims. These feelings found concrete expression on the Khilafat questions which Gandhiji was well aware of.(c) Revolutionary terrorism emereged as an alternative political line- for moderated constitutional agitation, and extremists direct action represented by Bhagat Singh and his other comrades made a major advance in broadening the scope of repolution by postulation its first objective as national liberation and another to establish a new social order in which exploitation of man by man must end.Bhagat Singh defined Socialism in a scientific manner-abolition of capitalism and class domination. He advocated Religion as one’s private conceren and communalism as an enemy to be fought. In his article : Why I am atheist he subjected religious philosophy to a critique. Thus, the movement under Bhagat singh made the masses more progressive in outlook. He had already abandoned his belief in terrorism in 1929 and turned to socialism and believed that popular mass movement could alone lead to successful revolution. Therefore, he established Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926 to carry political work among youth, peasants and workers.Thsus it can be concluded that his deep patriotism, secularism and progressive ideas helped spread nationa and socialistic consciousness and made an abiding contribution to national freedom movement.

Q. 3 Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each) :

(a) Age of Sangam Literature (b) Bhakti (c) Ashtadhyayi of Panini (d) Charvakas (e) Ajivikas (f) Gndhara Art (g) Malechchhas (h) Lingayats (i) Megasthenes (j) R.C. Dutt (k) Nagrjunakonda (l) Pastoralism (m) Rudramadevi (n) Sati (o) Ramanuja

Ans. (a) Earliest Tamil works composed during Pandya’s 500 BC-500 AD, throw light on political history, store house on social and religious history.

(b) Originated in South 7th- 9th AD by Tamil mystic saints, pioneer Ramanuja, in north Ramananda, believed in monotheism, local dialect, devotional worship, criticize caste system.

(d) Founder of Lokyata Darsana, propounds gross materialism, sense preceprion is the only source of knowldege, no conscious entity like soul or mind.

(e) Heterodox sect founded by Maskariputra Gosala sect saints known as Sudra Sanyasi. Atheist sect believes in universe conditioned and determined by destiny, prevalent during Bindusara.

(f) Originated 1-4th A.D. fusion of Greek, Roman, Chinese Persian and Indian style of art. Themeon Mahayana Buddhism, Patron Kushan and shakya rulers.

(g) For foreigners term used in Sanskrit; texts consider as barbarian like a Greeks, Sakas Kambhoj.

(h) Founded by Basava and his nephew Channa Basava, noteworthy for its social and cult doctrine, believe in qualified monism, against Brahmin dominace and rites.

(i) Ambassador of Seleucus Nicator in Chandra Gupta Maurya, wrote Indica, throws light on social economic and religious life during Mauryas.

(j) Earliest Civil Srvant wrote Economic history of India, President of INC in 1890, In this book he ahs elaborated his thesis of Marx.

(k) Capital of Iksvakas in Andhra Prades famous for Buddhist Stupa and Chaitya, belongs to Amarvati art school, named after great Buddhist scholaR Nagrjuna.

(l) It is important economic aspect of tribal organistation, breed and rear cattle for commercial pur- poses. Todas in Nilgiri and Gujjars in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir practice it.(m) Kakatiyas princess maintained intergrity of her empire, praised by Marco Polo, handed over power to Prataparudra II her grandson.(n) Social evil practised in ancient and medieval India especially among Kashtriya’s. First written evidence Eran inscription 510 AD. Banned in 1829 by William Bentinck.(o) His philosophy Vishista Advaitvada, Advocated Prapatti Marg, Saguna saint wrote Vedanta Sangraha popularly known as yatiraja, wrote commentary on Vedanta Sutra.

Q. 4. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each) :

(a) Explain how the Himalayan and the Tibetan highlands play an important role in the development of the South-West Monsoon ?

(b) Technological changes have brought in a major shift in the use of roads as transport corridors in India. How far do you agree with this view ?

(c) Explain the nature and causes of growing slums problems in the metropolitan cities of India.

Ans. (a) Himalayas from a natural boundary of the Indian Sub continent. Himalayas check the cold winds from Central Asia and prevents moisture laden winds from Central Asia and prevents moisture laden winds from crossing to North. As the Sun travels northwards there is change in wind circulation pattern both in lower and upper troposphere. At lower level due to the heating of land an Equational Low Pressure Zone is formed known as ITCZ (Inter Tropical Convergence Zone) which is formed approx parallel to the Himalayas. This zone determines the monsoon rain pattern in North India.Due to the heating of Himalayas and Tibetian Highland, Easterly jet stream orginates and generated tropical depression because Tibetian Highland and Himalayas are heated by Sun radiations. These radiations are reflected back to the atmosphere, which help in generation clockwise air circulation in the upper troposphere resulting in development of tropical depression. The intensity of South-West monsoon depends upon generation of these tropical depressions and formation ITCZs. The more tropical depression orginates, the more intense will be the South-West monsoon.(b) Transport system is a mirror of economic development and material prosperity of country. Several programmes have been implemented to develop roads as arteries of transport system like Nagpur Plan (1943), Twenty year Road Plane or Hyderabad Plan; Rural Development Plan; BOT, Centre Road Fund and Bharat Nirman. I fully agree with the above statement that technological changes have brought major shifts in the use of roads. This process has been evolutionary rather than revolutionary; new technology has been introduced in making all weather roads, width of roads increase for faster transportation, layering and concrete roads, better network of roads, increases in track capacity and weight, lower fuel consumptions. Proper management of corridors road, bridges and geotechniques involved in building tunnels and double road, use of innovative materials/Highway road safety norms have been made stringent and different methodology has been introduced like road facing, divider. Drainage of water; better elevation and right parameter of turns.(c) The rapid growth of slums in the metropolitan cities of India is due to various reasons like urban poverty, lack of remunerative employment opportunities, unequal regional development, lack of infrastructural development and rural employment, and lack of affordable legal shelter for the poor due to soaring land price in the urban areas.Development and opportunities for jobs attract a large number of migrants from rural areas. Increases in a greater proportion to the level of economic development slums swell, pressure on urban infrastructure intensifies and misery increases. It affects urban infrastructure like in Mumbai. Metti river was covered with slums; there was no drainage outlet left out resulting in flooding. Basic amenities, public utilities, transport and communication further deteriorate. It also enhances criminalization.Our planners’ lackadaisical attitude resulting in poor agricultural and rural industry in villages, lack of basic amenities like water, electricity medical and job opportunities are other causes. Even small town lack such opportunities to check migration.Economic development disparities will increase the exodus of rural people and mushrooming of more slums. Slums are also encouraged by politician to influence their clout.

Q. 5 Write notes on the following (in about 20 words each) 2x5 = 10

(a) Special Economic Zone (b) Inceptisol (c) Jarawas (d) Indira Point (e) Causes of Chambal Ravines

Ans. (a) Announced in 2000 by Ministry of Commerce to promote economic growth supported by quality infrastructure, fiscal package both at centre and state level.

(b) Soil usually moist, incomplete weathering, no clay, Iron and Aluminum oxide; saturated layers absent.
(c) Negrito tribes of Andaman; numerical thin strength, social contact futile due to their shy attitude, stay away from settling on Island.
(d) It is the farthest point of India located in Great Nicobar, also known as Pygmalion or Passon point; destroyed by Tsunami in 2006.
(e) Type of soil erosion gullies further deepen the grooves and result in ravines, barren land. It has resulted in poverty and unemployment and breeds crime like dacoity.
Q. 6 Answer any one of the following questions (in about 250 words).
(a) What is a Constitution? What are the main sources of the Indian Constitution?
(b) Difference between Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights. Discuss some of the measures taken by the Union and State Governments for the implementation of the Directive Principles of State policy.
Ans. (a) A Constitution is the supreme law of the land which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of that country is based. It defines the organisation of the government, the distribution of powers to the various organs of the government, general principles on which those powers are exercised and the rights and duties of the citizens.
The main sources from which the Indian Constitution has been drawn are:
The most profound influence and material source is the Government of India Act 1935. The Federal Scheme, Judiciary, Governors’ Status, emergency powers, the Public Services Commission and most of the administrative details are drawn from this Act. More than half the provisions of our Constitution are drawn from it.
From the British our Constitution borrows the system of Parliamentary government, cabinet system, single citizenship, procedure and privileges of Parliament, prerogative writs.
The USA Constitution was the source for the provisions pertaining to Judicial review, Independence of Judiciary, Fundamental rights, removal of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
The Irish inspired the inclusion of the directive principles, method of election of the President and the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha. The Canadian Constitution is an example of Federation with a strong centre. The residuary powers of legislation are vested in the centre and the centre appoints the Governors from the Australia Constitution, concurrent list of legislative subjects and provisions regarding freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, Weimer Constitution inspired to draw provision related to suspension of Fundamental rights during the proclamation of emergency.
Hence we can say our Constitution is conglomeration of the best features of the different Constitutions and modifies them according to our needs.
(b) Though the objectives of both FRs and DPs are identical there are still significant differences as follows.
FRs are justiciable, courts protect them and compel the state to respect them through Art. 32 and Art 226. But the Courts cannot direct the state to give effect to DPs as they are unjusticiable and cannot be enforced.
The FRs’ are mostly political rights which tend to restrain the state; they are legal in nature. They are also negative rights. Articles 14 and 21 are negatively worded. DPs are social rights in the form of positive obligations of the State and are morally binding upon the State.
There are numerous statutes both Central and State, which have their genesis in the desire of the government to implement DPs like Zamindar abolition Acts so that cultivator will become land owner. Agriculture Land Ceiling Acts were passed, several Amendments were made to implement DP principles i.e., the 73rd amendment to implement Panchayati Raj.
In 1969 nationalisation of banks, coalmines in 1973 inculcate Art 39 (b) and (c) legislation guaranteeing equal pay for equal work is relatable to Art 39 (d). The 26th Amendment of the Constitution made to abolish the Privy Purses which were granted to the rulers of Indian States. The 28th Amendment conferred on the Parliament the power to vary or revoke the conditions of service of the members of Indian Civil Service. Similarly ban on sale of liquor in Gujarat. All these were purported to implement the ideals enshrined in DPs.
Q. 7 Answer any one of the following (in 250 words) :
(a) What is regionalism? In which way has regionalism affected the Indian polity?
(b) What are the main determinants of voting behavior in India?
Ans. (a) Regionalism is the idea or practice of dividing a country into smaller units for political, economic, social and cultural purposes. Politically regionalism is linked to decentralization. It can also define as political ideology that focus on the interest of a particular region, or group of regions where people of particular faith or religion, or cultural affinity or linguistic affinity or caste or tribal affinity reside.
After independence because of various elements like regional development imbalance, non fulfillment of expectation of masses in terms of their aspirations with regard to development, river dispute or mineral rights, exploitation of people’s sentiments by political parties, exploitation of their culture or identity, linguistic hegemony are responsible for regionalism. Sometimes foreign powers also provoke regionalism to destabilize India’s growth and development.
Regionalism had manifold influence on Indian polity. In 1953 linguistic regionalism led to the formation of Andhra Pradesh Telgu speaking state. In southern States regional parties cropped up. Regionalism led to the recognition of regional languages as official languages of nation like Santhali, Konkani, It was regional feeling which was responsible for bifurcation of Punjab, Bombay, Assam. Sometimes regional imbalance in development initiates division like Uttar Pradesh into Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh into Chhattisgarh. Voices are raised to further divide UP into smaller States like Bundelkhand or Harit Pradesh.
Bodo Tribes in Assam and Gorkhas in West Bangal Demanded separate statehood due to regional inclination.
Regionalism has to some extent weakened the Centre Govt. and in framing its policies because it had to play appeasement policies. Country like India requires strong concrete policies to maintain integrity and unity of India.
Regional aspirations have been fulfilled over the period of time which no doubt has helped in maintaining unity amid diversity but in near future it can create new problems to india like rivers water dispute, distribution of electricity.
(b) Since Independence there are continuous changes in the voting behaviors in India. When India got independence, there was zeal for development and progressive growth. Congress was major party, opposition was highly fragmented. Then in South and East India Communist ideology emerged. Kerala and West Bengal Became strongholds of Communist voters. Another shift occurred due emergence of regional parties in the south India like DMK. Hence forth the voter became more inclined to regional ideology. From 1980 onward communalism, casteism, regional development slogan had drastically changed the voting pattern. In 1990 communalism and casteism further consolidated their roots and had deep impact upon voter behavior. Caste, religion, region, local cause and local charismatic leaders had deep impact upon voting behavior. National party influence decreased on voter behavior and national issues no longer influence voting behavior which it used to be 1950-70s. One thing which is noticeable is that the voter over the period of time has exerted his/her right and thrown out the governments for their incompetency.
Q. 8 Anser any two of the following questions (150 words) :
(a) Art. 74 States that president is bound to exercise his functions, in accordance with the advice of the council of ministers but there are few exceptions.
(b) What is Pro-tem Speaker?
(c) Under what circumstances may Parliament legislate on state subjects?
Ans. (a) The following are exceptions-
The appointment of the Prime Minister- While appointing /selecting the Prime Minister the President is to find out which party commands majority in the Lok Sabha. In case when there is no clear majority and various parties are combing to form coalition, then the President has to apply his mind in a judicious, fair and impartial manner.
· When the Prime Minster who has lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha, Council of Minsiters advises the President to dissolve the house, the President ahs to judge independently whether such a course of action would be in the national interest. The President should not bindly follow the advice tendered by the council of minister which does not enjoy the confidence of the lok sabha. If it is possible to form an alternative Government, the President should avoid dissolution.
· The president can ask council of minister to reconsider its advice this decision to be exercised independently by the President.
· The President can under Act 78 (b) call for information relating to administration and legislation.
· Under Act. 352 (3) the President has to ensure that during proclamation of Emergency decision of the cabinet must come in writing.

(b) After each general election the President nominates the senior most member elected as Speaker Protem. He performs the duties of office of the Speaker till the house elects one. Usually the only duty performed by the Speaker Pro-tem is to administer oath to the newly elected members. Pro-tem speaker is appointed both in Lok Sabha at the Union lelvel and Vidhan Sabha at the State level. In 2005 the Governor of Jharkhand appointed a junior member of the Assembly as Speaker. The Supreme Court expressed its disapproval.
(c) In normal times the distribution of powers must be strictly maintained and neither the state nor the centre can encroach upon the power allocated to be other by the Constitution yet there are certain exceptional circumstances under which the union Parliament can legislate on State Subjects.
1. According to Article 249 if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by 2/3 of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated within state list, then it shall be lawful for the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter so long as the resolution remain in force. Such resolution lasts for one year, it may be renewed as many times as necessary but not exceeding a year at a time. These laws will however, cease to have effect on the expiration of the period of six months after resolution has ceased to operate.
2. During the Proclamation of Emergency, as per Art. 250 the Parliament shall have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the country with respect to all matters enumerated in the state list.
3. Parliament’s power to legislate with the consent of the States.
According to Art 52 if the state legislature of two or more states pass resolution to the effect that it is desirable to have a law passed by the Parliament on any matters in the state list, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws regulation that matter.
4. Parliament’s power to legislate for giving effect to treaties and international agreements.
Act. 253 empowers the Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing treaties and international agreements and conventions. The normal distribution of powers will not stand in the way of Parliament to pass a law for giving effect to an international obligation even though such law relates to any of the subjects in the state list.
5. In case of failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
Under Art. 356 Parliament is empowered to make laws with respect to all matters in the state list, when the Parliament declares that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Q. 9 Answer the following questions (in about 20 words each :
(a) What is criminalization of politics?
(b) How is the President of India elected?
(c) What is casting vote?
(d) What is the difference between Council of Ministers and Cabinet?
(e) What is the importance of Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Ans. (a) Nexus between criminals and politicians has paid them rich dividend. Criminals help politicians in winning the election; now-a-day they themselves are contestiong and winning election by might and money.
(b) President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of Union Parliament and State Vidhan Sabhas.
(c) Art. 100 provides that the Speaker shall not vote in the first instance, but in case of equality of votes over a motion the speaker is entitled to cast his vote.
(d) Art. 74. (1) states that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Ministers there are different ranks like Cabinet Ministers there are different ranks like Cabinet Minister, independent charge, State and Deputy Minister. Hence council of minister is total number of ministers while cabinet is one of the ranks of it,
(e) Dr. Ambedkar rightly said ‘It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it. It provides right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
Q. 10 Answer any one of the following questions (in about 250 words :
(a) What were the main recommendations of the Platform for Action (PFA) adopted at the Beijing Women Conference, 1995?
(b) Discuss the steps to get ride of child labour in India.
Ans. (a) The fourth World Conference on woman held in Beijing in September 1995 culminated with the adoption of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action. The Declaration secured the commitment of government to work towards implementing before the end of the 20th century the strategies agreed on in Naairobi in 1985 and to mobilize resources to achieve the goals set up by the platform.
It incorporates the accomplishments of Prior conferences and treaties such as the universal declaration of Human rights, Convention on the Elimination of all forms of discriminations against woman and the Vienna Declaration. It also reaffirms the definitions set up in Cairo and adds a paragraphs on Human rights in general
The Beijing Conference included agreements aimed at elimination discrimination against women, eradicating poverty and adopting measures towards placing a decisive number of women in key positions. It also recognized that the right of woman to control their security and reproduction is one of their human rights, and called on states to review laws containing punitive measures against women who have undergone abortions. It further posed the need to strengthen legislation protecting the rights of woman.
The summit focused on the following critical areas of concern :
· Inadequacies and inequalities in and unequal access to education and training.
· Inequalities and inadequacies in and unequal access to health care and related services.
· Violence against women.
· The effects of armed or other kinds of conflicts on woman including those living under foreign occupations.
· Inequality in economic structures and policies, in all forms of productive activities and in access to resources.
· Inequality between men and women in the sharing of power and decision making at all levels.
· Insufficient mechanism at all levels to promote advancement of woman.
· Lack of respect for and inadequate promotion and protection of the human rights of women.
· Stereo typing of women and inequality in women’s access to and participation in all communication system especially in the media.
· Gender inequalities in the management of natural resources and in the safeguarding of the environment.
· Persistent discrimination against, and violation of the rights of the girl child.
Hence, we can conclude that agenda at the summit was on gender, equity, equality and empowerment.
(b) Child labour- As India is marching from developing country status to developed country status, there are certain areas of concern like literacy, per capital income, social justice, child labour. Among them child labour is a critical issue. Child labour implies those who are in the age group below 14 years and who work for themselves or their family for an income and who contribute a significant share to the labour force of India.
Children come to work or parent send them to work due to Poverty and this is exploited by the employers. These employers do not even think that the health and growth of a child is being hampered as they employ them. Employers believe in cheap labour. The management of organized and on organized sector do not owe moral or social responsibility.
Apart from poverty illiteracy is also major factor, because parents of such children are not aware of the conquences of child labour to the child labour to the child, to their family and to the society at large.
Unplanned family is also one of the reasons for the parents to send their children to work. They believe in more hands, more income.
Our Constitution Art. 24 and Art. 39 clearly mention that government in all spirit intends to abolish child labour. The Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta Vs State of T.N. 1997 enshrines guidelines how the state authorities should protect economic social and humanitarian rights of million of children working illegally in public and private sectors.
In Aug. 1987 through Comprehensive National policy on child labour, through action plan National child labour projects were launched in 12 child labour endemic districts. Here govt. set up schools to provide non formal/ formal education, vocational training supplementary nutrition, monthly stipend and regular health check ups. This was done to prevent poor child from engaging in employment.
Government has also taken a number of steps against child labour like 12th June celebrated as world day against child labour. National child labour projects scheme provides.
· Special schools/Rehabilitation Centres
· Non formal/formal education
· Mid day meal (It should be strengthened and properly implemented)
· Stipend @ Rs. 100 per child per month also requires review.
· Health care facilities.
The NCLP scheme at present covers 250 districts of India.
The Law and regulations to prevent child labour should be made stringent and with sincere efforts, they should be implemented like child labour (Prohibition and Regulation ) Act. Legislations must be encated in such a way that not a single citizen of India should think of neglecting the provisions in the legislation.
Corporates houses and NGOs along with Govt. agencies should create awareness about the evils of child labour. The children should be made aware of their rights and privileges and when forced to work, the avenues to get rid of it.
Individual campaigning, group campaigning, family campaigning may be resorted to educate parents, children and the promoters of business houses.
Q.11 Amswer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each) :
(a) What is stealth technology?
(b) Differentiate between National and Cultural heritage.
(c) What is value based politics?
Ans. (a) It is also known as low observability technology and is a sub discipline of electronic counter measures which cover a range of techniques used with aircraft, ships and missiles in order to make them lass visible to radar, infrared and other detection methods. Stealth technology is based on the principle of reflection and absorption that makes aircraft stealthy.
It is a combination of technologies that attempt to greatly reduce the distance at which a vehicle can be detected in particular radar cross section reduction but also acoustic, thermal and other aspects also. The term ‘Stealth’ in reference to reduced radar signature aircraft became popular during the late eighties when f-117 Stealth fighter became widely known. Most stealth aircrafts use matte paint and dark colours and operate only at night. Day light stealth US air force uses grey paints in disruptive schemes : B-2 bomber US aircraft uses chloro fluoro sulphonic acid for evasion. Stealth technology now-a-days is used both in aircrafts like F117 nighthawk, F-22 Raptor, B-2 Sprit Bomber and ship’s like La Fayette, Shivalik Hamina patrol boat.
Stealth technology allows an aircraft to be partially invisible to Rader or any other means of detection. Its does not make aircraft invisible on radar.
(b) The literary meaning of heritages is the history, tradition and qualities that a country or society has had for many years and that are considered an important part of its character.
Now-a-day both the above terms are associated with tourism promotion. The natural heritage mainly consists of physical and biological formations or group of such formation which are outstanding universal value from the aesthetic or scientific point of view like Mt. Everest, Angel fall Geological and physiographical formations and precisely delineated areas which constitute the habitat of threatened species of animals and plants like bio reserves; National parks. Natural sites or precisely delineated natural areas of outstanding universal value from the point of view of science, conservation or natural beauty like Himalays or Sunderban delta.
Cultural heritage on other hand includes monuments, architectural works, sculpture and painting elements of structures of an archaeological nature, inscriptions, cave dwellings and combination of features, which are outstanding universal values like Taj Mahal, Ajanta caves, group of buildings or seprate structure’s made by man known for their architectural and landscape features or unique e.g., Great wall of China, Indus, Egypt sites.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi cited the major structural and collective sins in contemporary period-politics without principles as sin. Hence we can sum up value based politics as based on certain basic principles or ideology which political parties are required to follow. Hence we can say values are equivalent to ideology. An ideology can be defined as a set of values beliefs and principles that guide a political party. All the policies and actions of that political party should be in conformity with these core values. In a democratic system, a political party must also have a share in decision making and hence it enters into electoral politics. But the dilemma that all parties face is, that they seek votes only from those believing in their ideology. As it is not possible because core supporters of any political party are always in limited number, it seeks to broaden its appeal, henceforth compromises and thus creates alliances. Here values are sometimes overlooked or forgotten in order to remain in power. Indian democracy was never in such a state of vaccum so far as the value orientation is concerned. It need value based politics much more than any time in its history. Pseudo values are adopted by political parties which can cause regional differences, caste and religious difference. Now-a-day in India personality based parties cam into existence, which function as private limited companies. Looming danger of free trade economy, environmental degradation, and terrorism require concrete value based politics to safeguard our country from vested interests.
Q.12 Write notes on any two of the following (in about 125 words each) :
(a) Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
(b) Prime Minister’s 5-point agenda for India’s development as a knowledge society
(c) The Lokpal Bill
Ans. (a) Integrated Child Development Services ICDS Government of India adopted National Policy for children in Aug. 1974, Under it ICDS was started in 1975 in 33 projects on experimental basis. It was a centrally sponsored scheme, adopting a multi sectoral approach to child development. The objective of ICDS are :
(i) Improving nutrition and health status of children
(ii) Laying foundation for proper psychological and social development of child.
(iii) Reducing mortality, morbidity and school drops outs.
(iv) Achieving effective coordination of policy and its implementation among various departments to promote holistic child development.
(v) Enhancing capability of mother to look after normal health and nutritional needs of child through proper health and nutritional education.
The Strategy adopted in ICDS in the delivery of integrated package of services namely : (i) Supplementary nutrition (ii) Immunization (iii) health check up and reformed services (iv) non formal pre-school education to children (3-6 age) (v) nutrition and health education to women.
Under this programme target group is children upto 6 years; pregnant and lactating mothers. ICDS focuses on rural and tribal areas and backward urban slusm.
(b) Prime Minister’s 5 point agenda for India’s development as a knowledge society.
· To generate cohesiveness among government organizations, industry and educated community to make effective law and their implementation.
· Use of world wide networking and telecommunication to make India knowledge based society.
· Expansion of educational sphere both in urban and rural areas and transform Indian society as enlightened and educated.
· Fuller use and implementation of information technology, telecommunication, science and technology, medical and health science and economic services.
· To generate an allied relationship among the power based technology, economic and information related issues so as to make India a developed nation.
(c) The Lokpal Bill- The Lokpal Bill has a long and chequred history. An agency like the Lokpal would help forces working for a cleaner government. The most recent bill introduced in Parliamnet is the Lok Sabha Bill 2001. It is synonymous to the institution of ombudsman existing in Sweden (Scandinavian countries)
· Its objective was to provide speedy, cheaper form of justice to people
· There member body with a chairperson who is or has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court and other two members who are or have been judges or C.J. of High Courts.
· The Chairman and other two members shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of committee consisting of (a) The Vice-President (b) Prime Minister (c) The Speaker (d) Home Minister (e) Leader of house other than the house in which P.M. is a member (f) Leader of the opposition of both the houses.
· In order to make Lokpal office independent following steps have been taken-
(i) Appointment is to be made on the recommendation of committee.
(ii) The Lokpal is ineligible to hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any state or similar such post after retirement.
(iii) Fixed tenure of three years and can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity after an enquiry made by C.J. and two senior most Judges. Of S.C.
· Lokpal will have its own administrative machinery for conducting investigations.
· Salary of Lokpal is to be charged on the consolidated Fund of India
Jurisdiction of Lokpal
· The central level political functionaries like the council of ministers including the P.M. in relation to letters functions of national security and public order.
· Complaints of offence committed within 10 years from the date of complaint can be taken up for investigation.

Lokpal is supposed to complete the inquiry within a period of six months. The Lok-pal has the The power of civil court to summon any person or authority.
He annually submits its report to the President, which will be put before the both houses of Parliament.
Q. 13 Write short notes on the following (in about 20 words each):
(a) Yakshagana
(b) PACE
(c) Fotloose Industries
(d) The Statue of Liberty
(e) Genome
Ans. (a) Dance-drama of Karnataka, literally means songs of Yaksha, musician known as Himmela and dance group Mummela Product of Vaishnava Bhakti movement based on themes from Puranas, Mahabharata.
(b) it is an acronym of Processor for Aerodynamic Computations and evolutions for super computer developed by “D.R.D.O.s ANURAG”. It is eight gigaflops and target to make it 30 gigaflops.
(c) Industry that can be sited in any of a number of places, often because transport costs are unimportant, having spatially fixed costs which means that the cost of the products do not change despite, where the product is assembled e.g. Diamond and computer chips industries.
(d) Presented to the USA by France in 1886 copper patina clad statue, commemorates the centennial sculptured it. Gustave Effiel and Violet-le-Due were involved in its making.
(e) Coined by Hans Winkler, in 1920, Germany. Its whole hereditary information includes both the genes and the non coding sequences of the DNA.

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