CIVIL SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM. , 2008 (Solved Paper )

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Public Administration (Held on 18-5-2008)

Q.1.Which one of following is not a/ an approach / method / principle for organization development (OD)?

(A). Grid approach

(B). Survey feedback method

(C). Process consultation

(D). Peter principle

Q.2.In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton which the concern for people ?

(A). Concern for external environment

(B). Boncdrn for flexhbilhty

(C). Cnncern fnr produbtion

(D). Boncdrn for managing change

Q.3.Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?

(A). Charismatic

(B). Exploitive- authoritative

(C). Consultative

(D). Participative- group

Q.4. Consider the following statements about variable budgets-

(1). Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.

(2). Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.

(3). Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)1 and 3 only

(C)2 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q. 5. Who is / are the author (S) of the well – know book : Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intra- group conflicts in a organization ?

(A) A. F Stoner and E. Freeman

(B) K. Smith and D. Berg

(C) S. Ghoshal

(D) C.K . Prahlad

Q.6. John Woodward is know for her contribution in which area ?

(A) Task technology approach to organizational design

(B) Environmental approach to organizational design

(C) Communication system in an organizational

(D) Feedback control in an organizational

Q.7. What did the Bhore Committee deal with ?

(A) Technical education in India

(B) Public health in India

(C) Development of airport in India

(D) Development of ports in India

Q.8. Which of the following has/ have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act. 2005 unless the competemt authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information ?

1. Information in respect of intellectual property the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party.

2. Information in his available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office ?

(A) By an order of the State Chidf Inforlatinn Cnmmirsioner

(B) By the Ruprdme Bourt of India

(C) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court on a reference made to it by the Governor has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed

(D) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a Judge of a High Court

Q.10. Which one among the following conducts the Census of Central Government Employees and publishes the Report thereof ?

(A) Ministry of statistics and programme Implementation Government of India

(B) Directorate General of Employment and Training Ministry of Labour , Government of India

(C) Planning Commission of India

(D) Registrar General of India , Ministry of Home Affairs Government of India

Q.11. Consider the following statements –

1. The central staffing scheme for the central government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission

2.The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services .

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions ?

(A) Gouldner
(B) Merton

(C) Barnard
(D) Simon

Q.13. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers-

(A) Are essentially lazy

(B) Are motivated only by more pay.

(C) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions

(D) Obey orders of immediate superiors

Q.14. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labelled under situational design theory ?

(A) Behavioural approach

(B) Neo- classical approach

(C) Contingency approach

(D) Bureaucratic model

Q.15. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization ?

(A) H.A. Simon

(B) J.D. Millet

(C) Peter Drucjer

(D) Bhester Barn`rd

Q.16. Which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven ?

1. Coercive power

2. Technical power

3. Police power

4. Legitimate power

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 2,3 and 4

(C) 2,4 and 5
(D) 1,3 and 5

Q.17. In Management Grid Theory of Blake and Mouton when the concern for people is the highest what is the leadership pattern called ?

(A) Impoverished

(B) People- centric

(C) Team Manager

(D) Country Club

Q.18. Which of the following of are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs ?

1. Aggressiveness

2. Desire to attain fame

3. Independence

4. Self- confidence

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2,3 and 4

(B) 2,3,4 and 5

(C) 1,3 and 5

(D) 1,2,4 and 5

Q.19. Consider the following statements about Motivation-

1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.

2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.

3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Q.20. Consider the following statements –

Ethics Reforms Act , 1989 passed by the U.S Congress was an improvements over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that-

1.It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.

2.It created the Officer of personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.

3.It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.

4.It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 4 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Q.21. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom ?

(A) N. Umapathy

(B) Amilai Etzioni

(C) Deming

(D) Chris Argyris

Q.22. Consider the following statements-

The essential difference between closed and open modelr of orfanizatinn ir differhng percdptinn about,

1.Hulan nature .

2.Organizational environment

3.Role and significance of organization in society.

4.Management’s role in organization.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2,3 and 4

(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 4

Q.23. The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following ?

(A) Customer driven government

(B) Entrepreneurial government

(C) Rationality in decision making

(D) Down-sizing of bureaucracy

Q.24. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following ?

1. Rick taking ability

2. Ecological sensitivity

3. Delegation of authority

4. Concern for the disadvantaged

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 3,4 and 5

(C) 1,4 and 5 (D) 2,4 and 5

Q.25. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features ?

1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.

2. Legitimacy is derived from charisma.

3. Person giving order has sacred and outstanding characteristics.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.26. Match list- with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I (Concept)

(a)Functional foremanship

(b)Constructive conflict

(c)Scalar principle

(d)Grapevine
List- II(Contributor)

1. L. Urwick
2. F. Taylor

3. E. Mayo
4. M. Weber
5. M.Follet

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)2315
(B)1543
(C)2513
(D)1345

Q.27. Match list with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I(Book)

(a)Human Organization

(b)Theory of Social and Economic Organization

(c)New Patterns of Management

(d)The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization

List- II(Author)

1.Rensis Likert

2.Elton Mayo

3.Henry Fayol

4.Max Weber

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)3412
(B)2143
(C)3142
(D)2413


Q.28. According to classical theorists how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an adminirtrative organization characterized ?

1. It hs the ultim`te task of the head of the organization only.

2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.

3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.29. Legitimacy of rule , according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following ?

1. Tradition

2. Charisma

3. Electoral verdict

4. Professional competence

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1,3 and 4 only

(D)1,2,3 and 4

Q.30. which one of the following is not a post behavioural tenet in the trinity of post Modern Public Administration ?

(A) Critical Theory

(B) Neo Taylorism

(C) Rational Theory

(D) Public Choice Theory

Q.31. Which of the following are the characteristics of New Public Management ?

1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship .

2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation .

3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.

4. Separation of units within a public sector enterprise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1,2 and 4 only

(B)2,3 and 4 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2,3 and 4

Q.32. Match list – I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I

(a)Public Administration studies have to be comparative to claim the status of a science

(b)Development administration is goal and action oriented

(c)Bureaucratic structures are necessary but not sufficient

(d)Development is both process and purpose

List- II

1.Weidner

2.Hahn- Been Lee

3.R. Dahl

4.V. Ostrom

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)3241
(B)4132
(C)3142
(D)4231


Q.33. Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched ?














Thought/ ConceptScholar
1. Hierarchical Pyramid would not so much flatten
as a result of computers as spread into a bell shape
Y.Dror
2. A change in economic organization that makes one
or more members of society better off without
making anyone worse off
vilfredo Pareto
3. Metapolicy Policy for policy making proceduresJohn Pfiffner


Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)2 only

(B)3 only

(C)1 and 2 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.34. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves-

(A)Ecological , structural – functional empirical and nomothetic approaches

(B)Non- ecological , prescriptive ideographic approaches

(C)Adoption of legal – formal institutional approaches

(D)Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches

Q.35. Consider the following statements –

Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on-

1.A science of administration.

2.A more businesslike administration.

3.Efficiency , economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration .

4.The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1,2 and 3

(D)1,3 and 4

Q.36. Consider the following statements –

According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of Public Administration is not possible because-

1.It involves problems of normative values.

2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.37. Consider the following statements-

Public – Private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to-

1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology.

2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.38. Consider the following statements-

In the course of Waldo- Simon debate on the theme of Science of administration Waldo questioned Simon’s facts- values’ division, as-

1.An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.

2.A way of purging administration of politics.

3.Making a mere logical division of politics and administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.39. Consider the following statements-

1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.

2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.

Which of the following given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.40. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization-

1. Professional identification is not maintained.

2. Conflict in organization authority exists.

3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.41. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following ?

(A) Behaviour and attitude of a person

(B) Skill- set and compensation of an employee

(C) The leadership styles of two managers

(D) Motivational needs of two employees

Q.42. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Salary - Motivator

(B) Status - Hygiene factor

(C) Growth - Motivator

(D) Security - Hygiene factor

Q.43. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1. Situational leadership theory
- Hersey- Blanchard
2. Path goal theory
- Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model
- The University of Michigan Studies

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.44. Consider the following statements-

1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust , with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government , functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.

2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.45. Which one of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities ?

1. Urban poverty alleviation.

2. Planning for economic and social development.

3. Regulation for tanneries.

4. Urban forestry.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3 only

(B) 2,3 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 4 only

(D) 1,2,3 and 4

Q.46. Consider the following statements-

1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and , for the first time , bicameral.

2. Before independence , while under all the previous Governments of India Acts, the Governments of India was India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.47. Which of the following statements is/ are correct in respect of the Constitution of India ?

1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November , 1949.

2. The provisions relation to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November , 1949.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.48. Consider the following statements-

1. The Constitution (Seventy- third Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India.

2. The Constitution (Seventy fourth Amendment)Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new Schedule in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.49. Consider the following statements –

All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,

1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the Presidents of India.

2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.

3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only
(D) None

Q.50. Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill?

1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.

2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.

3. Alteration of any tax

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Q.51. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ?

(A) Finance Commission of the concerned State

(B) Legislature of the State.

(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(D) District Collector

Q.52. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to condition of service of members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission ?

(A) President of India

(B) Parliament

(C) Union Minister of Law

(D) Chairman Union Public Service Commission

Q.53. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

(A) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment

(B) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment

(C) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment

(D) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide

Q.54. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office/ Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey ?

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

(C) Planning Commission

(D) Cabinet Secretariat

Q.55. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, Who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission ?

(A) P. Chidambaram

(B) Manmohan Singh

(C) Jaswant Singh

(D) Yashwant Sinha

Directions- (Q. 56-60) Each of the next Five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A)Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)(A) is false but (R) is true

Q.56. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public Administration.

Reason (R) : The second Minnowbrook Conference followed the First Minnowbrook Conference after twenty years.

Q.57. Assertion (A) : ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.

Reason (R) : Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits.

Q.58. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the property of direct application to practical situations.

Reason (R) : It is descriptive,probabilistic and multivariate.

Q.59. Assertion (A) : Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.

Reason (R) : Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving.

Q.60. Assertion (A) : Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.

Reason (R): Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization.

Q.61. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred E. Fiedler that helps determine which leadership stvle will be effective?

(A) Environmental pressures and workplace demands

(B) Leader- member relations

(C) Task structures

(D) Leader’s position power

Q.62. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India ?

1. Panchayati Raj institutions

2. Communal violence.

3. An integrated domestic market.

4. Central Law Enforcement Agency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1,2 and 3 only

(D) 1,2,3 and 4

Q.63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the ‘National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution’ constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000?

(A) A.M. Ahmadi

(B) A.S Anand

(C) M.N. Venkatachalaish

(D) J.S. Verma

Q.64. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?

1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.

2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.

3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life of liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.65. The States’ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 2005-2010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations ?

(A) 11th Finance Commission

(B) 12th Finance Commission

(C) National Development Council

(D) Planning Commission

Q.66. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference ?

1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.

2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by founding from the University Grants Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.67. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date ?

(A) 1.4.2008
(B) 1.4.2009

(C)1.4.2010
(D) 1.4.2011

Q.68. Match list- I with – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I(Commission/ Post of the Union of India)

(a)Finance Commission

(b)Union Public Service Commission

(c)Election Commission

(d)Comptroller and Auditor General of India

List-II (Article of the Constitution of India)

1. 148
2. 280

3. 315
4. 324


















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)4123
(B)2341
(C)4321
(D)2143


Q.69. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ?

(A) The Ministry of Agriculture

(B) The Ministry of Water Resources

(C) The Ministry of Rural Development

(D) The Ministry of Environment and Forests

Q.70. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA & ULR)-

1. The scheme is being implements by the State Governments.

2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50: 50 funds sharing basis.

3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1and 2 only

(B) 2and 3 only

(C) 1and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.71. Consider the following statements-

1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.

2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.72. Who among the following further developed the Politics – Administration dichotomy- a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stages of the evolution of Public Administration ?

(A) H. Fayol
(B) L. Gulick

(C) L. Urwick
(D) F. Goodrow

Q.73. Match list- I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I

(A)Talcott Parsons

(B)Frederick Herzberg

(C)Anthony Downs

(D)M.P. Follett

List- II

1.Creative Experience

2. Inside Bureaucracy

3. The Structure of Social Action

4. Work and the Nature of Man

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)2431
(B)3124
(C)2134
(D)3421


Q.74. The Second Minnowbrook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following ?

(A) Nomological deductivism

(B) Professionalisation of public administration

(C) Debureaucratisation of administration

(D) All inclusiveness of the term public

Q.75. Which of the following pairs is / are correctly matched ?

1.The Profession of Government - B. Chapman

2. Development Administration - La Palambora

3. Bureaucracy and Political Development - Appleby

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only

Q.76. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems , made possible by rising level of diffraction.

Who among the following gave the above definition ?

(A) Edward Weidner

(B) Ferrel Heady

(C) Fred W. Riggs

(D) Montgomery and W. Siffin

Q.77. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following ?

(A) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries

(B) A more meaningful role by public servants in development

(C) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization

(D) Induction of sophisticated technology even without an adequate infrastructure

Q.78. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund(RIDF)-

1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001.

2. Presently , only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1nor 2

Q.79. The ‘Line and Staff’ from of organization first originated in which one of the following ?

(A) Educational Administration

(B) Municipal Administration

(C) Military Administration

(D) Public Administration

Q.80. Match list- I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I

(a) Frederick Taylor

(b) Chester I. Barnard

(c) Chris Argyris and E. Bakke

(d) Kurt Lewin

List- II

1. Field Force Model

2. Fusion Process Theory

3. Zone of indifference

4. Pig iron experiment

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)4123
(B)2341
(C)4321
(D)2143


Q.81. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following ?

1. Differential piecework plan.

2. Separation of planning and execution.

3. Time study.

4. Assuming worker as machine.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,3 and 4 only

(B) 1,2 and 4 only

(C) 1,2,3and 4

(D) 2 and 3 only

Q.82. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol ?

(A) Relating to production and adaptation

(B) Relating to buying and selling

(C) Relating to liaison with the governments

(D) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital

Q.83. Consider the following statements-

1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.

2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.84. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization ?

(A) Effective use of specialized facilities

(B) Effective use of specialized knowledge

(C) Unambiguous responsibility assignment

(D) Effective top- management control

Q.85. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit ?

1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.

2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority

3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.

4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 2,3,4and 1

(B) 3,1,2and 4

(C) 2,1,3and 4

(D)3,4,2 and 1

Q.86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I(Subject)

(A)Nonprogrammed decisions

(B)Programmed decisions

(C)Emphasis on data storage

(D)Emphasis on data manipulation
List- II (Related to)

1.Lower- level managers

2. Upper- level managers

3. Decision support system

4. Management Information System

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)2134
(B)1234
(C)1243
(D)2143


Q.87. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization ?

(A) Job design

(B) Work measurement

(C) Decision under uncertainty

(D) Training program for new recruits

Q.88. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U.K.-

The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for-

1. A complete overhaul of administrative training

2. More professionalism.

3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 2

Q.89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

Feature Type of Budget
1. Allows no proper incentive for managers : Incremental budget
to develop innovative ideas
2. Increases staff motivation : Zero – based budget
3. The R & D department is threatened : Zero – based budget
whereas production department benefits
4. The impact of change can be seen quickly : Incremental budget

Select the correct answer using the code given below –

(A)1,2 and 3 only

(B)2,3 and 4 only

(C)1 and 4 only

(D)1,2,3 and 4

Q.90. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution ?

(A) French Revolution of 1789

(B) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847

(C) The Civil Service Act of 1946

(D) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948

Q.91. “We are no longer confronted with several Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be applied equally well to public and private affairs”.

These views are assigned to whom ?

(A)Frederick Taylor

(B)L .Urwick

(C)Henri Fayol

(D)Frank Goodnow

Q.92. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors ?

1. The need to avoid over- lapping and confusion in the organization.

2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.

3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 2 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.93. Participative style of leadership become popular during and after the era of which one of the following ?

(A) Systems theory

(B) Behavioural theory

(C) Human Relations theory

(D) Scientific Management theory

Q.94. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A. Etzioni ?

(A) Programme, Organizational and Normative

(B) Budgetary , personnel and Utilitarian

(C) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian

(D) Coercive, Normative and Organizational

Q.95. Who among the following are authors of the vell, knnw wnrk – Adlinirtrative Beh`viotr : A study of Decision – Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?

(A) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard

(B) H.A Simon and Chester I. Barnard

(C) F. Herzberg and A. Maslow

(D) A. Maslow and Chester I. Barnard

Q.96. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries ?

(A) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation

(B) Ministry of Rural Development

(C) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Q.97. What is / are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication ?

1. Cultural

2. Perceptual

3. Ideological

4. Technological

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2,3 and 4

Q.98. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social – psychological tradition ?

1. The idea goes against the open model.

2. It is against the closed model.

3. It ascribes special characteristics to some member in an organization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 only

Q.99. In the U.K the Citizen and the Administration : Redress of Grievances was published by which Report ?

(A) Whyatt Report

(B) Atkinson Report

(C) William Report

(D) Northcote- Trevelyan Report

Q.100. Effective public participation development projects majorly needs which of the following ?

1. Occasional consultation

2. Active association with the whole project cycle

3. Administrative initiative more than people’s initiative

4. Gender sensitivity

5. Poverty sensitivity

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 2,4 and 5

(C) 2,3 and 4 (D) 1,4 and 5

Q.101. Match list- I with list- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I

(a)Job enrichment

(b)Zone of acceptance

(c) Self- actualization

(d)Mixed scanning

List- II

1. H. Simon

2. Etzioni

3. Chester Barnard

4. A. Maslow

5. F. Herzberg


















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)5432
(B)2145
(C)5142
(D)2435


Q.102. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘State mystifying’ institution?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mao- Tse- Tung

(C) Karl Marx

(D) V.I. Lenin

Q.103. “Administration is a moral act and an administrator is a moral agent”.

This statement is credited to whom among the following ?

(A)L.D. White

(B)F.A.Nigro

(C)O. Tead

(D)C. Merriam

Q.104. Consider the following statements about budget-

1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration.

2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration .

3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document.

4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 4 only

(B)1,2 and 3

(C)2,3 and 4

(D)1,3 and 4

Q.105. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally attributed to which of the following ?

1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait.

2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem.

3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compremise.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)1 and 3 only

(C)2 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists –

List- I

(a)Davis Committee

(b)Masterman Committee

(c)Second Hoover Committee

(d)Franks Committee

List- II

1.Political activities of Civil Servants

2.Senior Executive Service

3. Official Secrets Act

4. Method- II
















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)4123
(B)2341
(C)4321
(D)2143


Q.107. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is fully owned by-

(A)The Government of India only

(B)The Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India

(C)The Reserve Bank of India only

(D)The Government of India and the Life Insurance Corporation of India

Q.108. The Code of Ethics for public services developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following ?

1. Respect for public interest , Constitution and laws.

2. Personal integrity , professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations

3. High salaries , quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.109. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A. ?

(A) F. Roosevelt

(B) A. Jackson

(C) T. Jefferson

(D) G. Washington

Q.110. Match list- I with list- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I
(Body/Feature)

(a)National Personnel Authority

(b)Constitution contains only ‘Seven Articles’

(c)Doctrine of Rule of Law

(d)Commune – A unit of local self- government
List-II
(Country)

1.United States of America

2. France

3. U.K.

4. Japan
















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)3241
(B)4132
(C)3142
(D)4231


Q.111. Consider the following statements-

Informal organizations / groups within formal ones come into being because-

1.They are created by the top management in an organization.

2. They facilitate communication within different units/ levels of an organization.

3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)1 and 3 only

(C)2 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.112. Consider the following statements-

In the ambiguous and uncertainty- ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense- making perspective under which-

1.Preferences may be easy to identify.

2.Choices may be contradictory and unclear.

3.Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1,2 and 3

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 only

(D)1 and 3 only

Q.113. Who among the following used the systems framework in his analysis of governmental organizations ?

(A) Philip Selznick

(B) H.A Simon

(C) Dwight Waldo

(D) Peter Drucker

Q.114. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them ?

(A) Rewards and sanctions

(B) Social disapproval

(C) Legitimacy

(D) Subordinate’s confidence in superior’s ability

Q.115. In explaining administrative decision- making Simon’s decision – theory focused on which one of the following ?

(A) The single best choice made by the decision- maker

(B) The limits of information availability in the organization

(C) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator

(D) Bounded rationality and satisficing

Q.116. While dealing with superior- subordinate communication, the theory of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following ?

(A) Emphasis on task directives

(B) Communication on organizational policy and procedures

(C) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates

(D) Superior’s managerial capacity

Q.117. The behavioural approach led to administrative research on which of the following ?

1. Motivation studies.

2. Decision making studies.

3. Organizational structures.

4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A)1 and 3 only

(B)1,2 and 3

(C)2,3 and 4

(D)1,2 and 4

Q.118. Consider the following statements-

According to Barnard , authority is accepted in an organization only when-

1.The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.

2.The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1nor 2

Q.119. Out of the following who has criticized bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behavior by learning from its errors” ?

(A) M. Crozier

(B) Frank Gillbreth

(C) Reinhard Bendix

(D) M.LCooke

Q.120. What was/ were the perspective(s) of Weber’s analysis of bureaucracy ?

1. Economic perspective

2. Political perspective

3.Sociological perspective

4. Cultural Perspective

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A)2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

(C)4 only
(D) 3 only

Answers with Hints

1.(D) 2. (C)
3. (A) Rensis Likert has suggested four styles of leadership-
1. Exploitative-authoritative,
2. Benevolent authoritative,
3. Consultative.
4. Participative
4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A)
7. (B) The Bhore Committee was constituted in 1946.
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13.(C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) The concept of logical positivism emphasises on the factual and scientific study. Simon also considers administration as a science based on factual analysis, in which ethical values do not find a place.
22. (B) The chief characteristics of closed model of organization are task especialisation , emphasis on means formal responsibility. Hierarchical structures, emphasis on vertical interaction etc. The characteristics of an open model of organization are specialised knowledge contributing to common tasks emphasis on ends, flexible responsibility towards organizational problems all side interaction in the organization and emphasis on excellence of performance.
23. (B) 24. (D)
25. (B) According to the views of Weber the positions based on merit is the example of legal authority.
26.(C)
27. (A) There is a mistake in the question as two books (A) Human Organization and (C) ‘New patterns of Management are written by Rensis Likert. None of the books mentioned in the question is written by Henry Fayol . Yet the most appropriate answer is ‘A’
28. (B)
29. (A) According to Max Weber, there are three kinds of authority and legitimacy of rule in each authority is based on factors given below- 1. Traditional authority – Sanctity of tradition,
2. Charismatic authority – Charisma of leader, 3. Legal – Rational Authority – Legal sanction.
30. (C) Rational theory is the core feature of behavioural studies in public administration.
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34.(A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39.(C) 40.(C) 41.(A)
42. (A) In Herzberg’s Motivation theory , Hygiene factors are company policy and administration, supervisions, salary interpersonal relations and working conditions . Motivation factors are achievement , recognition, work itself , responsibility and advancement.
43. (A) The Leadership – participation model was given by Victor Broom and Philip Yetton (1937) . This model is also know as Decision – participation model, Normative model or Leadership decision theory.
44. (D) According to Article 258 , the President may, with the consent of the Governor of a state, entrust to that state government functions which fall under the executive domain of the union.
45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C)
48. (A) The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added 12th Schedule to the Constitution of India which mentions 18 subject coming under the jurisdiction of municipalities.
49. (B) 50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55.(B) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C) 61. (A).
62. (D) The new commission on Centre State relations was constituted in April, 2007.
63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66.(A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D)
70. (D) The scheme for strengthening of Revenue administration and updated of land records was started in 1987 by the Central Government.
71. (A) 72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (D)
78. (B) Rural Infrastructural Development Fund was established in the year 1995-96.
79. (C) 80.(C) 81. (C)
82. (C) Fayol has identified six types of activities of an industrial undertaking- (1) Technical activities (2) Commercial activities (3) Financial activities (4) Security activities (5) Accounting activities (6) Managerial activities.
83. (D) Infact decentralisation encourages competition and comparative standards of evaluation among several competing field units.
84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89.(A) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95.(B) 96.(B) 97. (C) 98.(C)
99. (A) The report of Whyatt Committee (1967) led the establishment of the office of parliamentary commissioner in England.
100. (B) 101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105.(C)
106. (A) The years of various committees is given below- Devis Committee, U.K , 1969 , Masterman Committee U.K 1948 , Second Hoover Committee , 1955 , USA, and Franks Committee , 1972 U.K.
107. (B) NABARD was set up in 1982 by an Act of Parliament with 50% share capital owned by both RBI and the Union Government each.
108. (A)
109. (A) The Executive Office of president of USA was established in 1939 by the then President F. Roosevelt by an executive order under the Reorganization Act of 1939.
110.(B) 111. (C) 112. (D) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115.(D) 116.(C) 117. (D) 118. (B) 119.(A) 120. (D).

Fundamental Rights Important Facts

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The demand for fundamental Rights in India was raised for the first time in the Nehru Report 1928 , Which interalia included some social and economic rights also. The American Constitution was the first written Constitution which granted fundamental rights called Bill of Right to its citizens. The Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India are inspired by the American Constitution. Some fundamental rights as prohibition on discrimination on the ground of religion, race caste sex of place of birth (Art 15). Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16) and right to freedom of speech association etc.(Art19) are available to Indian citizen only. All other fundamental rights are available to both citizens and aliens . The fundamental rights relating to arrest and detention (clause 1 and 2 of Art.22) are not however available to enemy aliens. Right to property is the only fundamental right which has been excluded from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978 as it was coming in the way of the progressive and welfare activities of the state. Right to free and compulsory education to children from 6 to 14 year age is the fundamental right which has been added in the list under 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserting new Article 21A. while the proclamation Emergency under Article 352 come into effect the fundamental right given under Art. 19 (right to freedom of speech association etc). are automatically suspended . Other fundamental rights may be suspended by the President by issuing a separate notification to that effect under Art. 359 . However after the 44th Amendment 1978 the two fundamental right namely rights relating to protection in respect of conviction of offences (Art . 20) and right to protection of life and personal liberty(Art. 21) cannot be suspended even during the operation of national emerfencx. At prdsent thd Rifht to property hs a leg`l rhght unddr Art . 300A However certain type of property is still enjoying the status of fundamental right to property under Art.31A that is the land held by a person for his personal cultivation and which is within the ceiling limit. Leaving aside the above exception the other kind of property can be acquired by the state in the public interest and the provisions of Articles 14 and 19 cannot be invoked against such acquisition. As per the provision of Article 31B the Acts and regulation included in the 9th schedule cannot be challenged in any court of law, The 9th schedule and the Article 31B were added by the Constitution First Amendment Act. The land reform acts passed by states are included in the 9th schedule. Certain Directive Principles of state policy are given precedence over the fundamental rights included in Articles 14 and 19 . By the 25th Constitution Amendment Act 1971 Article 31C was inserted which provides that the laws enacted to give effect to the Directive Principles of state policy as contained in Art. 39 cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of rights given in Articles 14 and 19 Latter by the 42nd Constitution Amendment 1976 the scope of this provision was broadened and this provision has become applicable to all Directive Principles of State Policy. Under the provisions of Art.33 the parliament has been empowered to enact law to condone any person in the service of state for violation of fundamental rights during the enforcement of martial law in any territory of India. Under the provisions of Article 34 the parliament has been empowered to enact law to condone any person in the service of state for violation of fundamental rights during the enforcement of martial law in any territory of India. By the provisions of Article 35 the parliament has been empowered to enact laws for the implementation of fundamental rights . However the legislatures of states have been debarred to make any law for this purpose. The fundamental rights are not absnlutd . They subject to bert`in bondhtions and rdasonable restrictions. The Parliament , has been authorised by law to make reasonable restrictions on the right to freedom as given in Article 19. The ground of reasonable restriction applicable to different types of freedom are given below : (i) Freedom of Speech and Expression – Reasonable restrictions on the ground of sovereignty and integrity of India the sovereignty of the state friendly relations with foreign states , public order decency or morality contempt of court, defamation of incitement to an offence. (ii) Freedom to Assemble Peaceably without Arms- Reasonable restrictions on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India or public order. (iii) Freedom to from Association or Unions – Reasonable restrictions on grounds of the sovereignty and integrity of India public order morality. (iv) Freedom to move and reside in any part of the Territory of India- Reasonable restrictions on grounds of interest of the general public or for the protection of the interests of any scheduled tribe. (v) Freedom to practice any profession or to carry out any Occupation- The reasonable restrictions on the ground of prescribing technical qualifications necessary for any profession or the state owned any business or trade. The Freedom of press and freedom of writing paintings etc. are convered under freedom of expression as given in Article 19. Leading Court Cases with Respect to Fundamental Rights The approach of judiciary in India since independence towards fundamental Rights has been to broaden their scope in favour of citizens or affected persons . Some of the leading cases and the principles or rules upheld by the courts are given below which have deep bearing in the understanding and interpretation of Fundamental Rights. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras , 1950- The court uphdld that the leghslature unddr otr Cnnsthtuthon hs snverdign and the courts cannot impose any restriction upon that sovereignty on the theory of spirit of Constitution or Natural Rights, Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab 0967, Thd supremd Cotrt held that thd Fundamdntal Rifhts have been given a Transcendental Position by the Constitution so that no authority including the Parliament is competent to amend the Fundamental Rights. It should be noted that before the Golaknath case the superme court in Shankary Prasad vs. Union of India 1952 and sajjan singh vs State of Rajasthan 1965 held that the Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental Rights under Article 368. Keshvanand Bharti vs. State of Kerla 1973- The 13 judge bench of the Supreme Court overruled the decision of Golak Nath case and held that the Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental Rights but it cannot amend under Art. 368 the basic features of the Constitution .However the majority opinion in this case did not include fundamental rights in the list of basis features It should be noted that the basic feature has not been authoritatively defined by the courts. During this judgement justice S. M. Sikri was the Chief justice of India . The judgement was given by a majority of 7-6 judges. It was justice H.R. Khanna who propounded the concept of basic feature As a result of this judgement justice A.N. Ray was appointed the Chief justice of India superseding three senior judges- J.M.Shelat, K.S. Hegde and A.N. Grover. Minerva Milk Vs. Union of India 1980- In order to overcome the limitation of basic features imposed by Keshvanand case on the amending powers of the Parliament Article 368 was amended vide 42nd Amendment Act 1976 which provided that- (a) No amendment under Art. 368 shall be called in question in any court on any ground [368(4)]. (b) There shall be no limitation on the powers of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution [Aticle 368(5)]. The Supreme Court in Minerva Mills case applied basic features theory and invalhdatdd clausd 4 `nd 4 and of Arthcle 368 and uphdld that the doctrine of Judicial Review can not be excluded by amending the Constitution.

5. Indira Nehru Gandhi vs. Raj Narain 1975- In this case the court hdld bourt held that the doctrine of Judibial Revhew vas the basic feature of the Constitution and it cannot be excluded even by constitutional amendment . The judicial Review is the power of the courts by which they can declare any law of Parliament as void if such law goes against the provisions of the Constitution. 6. Indra Sawhney vs Union of India 1992- This case is also known as Mandal commission case . The nine judge bench of the Supreme Court held that- (i) The Backward classes of citizens is not defined in the Constitution . There is an integral connection between caste occupation , poverty and social backwardness. (ii) The backward classes can be identified in Hindu society with reference to castes alongwith other criteria such as traditional occupation , poverty , place of residence, lack of education etc. and in communities where caste is not identified the rest of the criteria shall apply. (iii) The backwardness contemplated by Art. 16(4) is mainly social. (iv) There should be imposition of an income limit for the purpose of excluding persons from the backward classes . They are called ‘Creamy Layer’ which should be excluded from reservation. (v) Reservation under Art . (16(4) should not exceed 50%. (vi) Reservation under Art. (16(4) is not applicable in promotion. (vii) Identification of backward classes is subject to judicial review. 7. Manika vs Union of India 1978- The seven judge bench of the Supreme Court laid down that the expression personal liberty in Art. 21 covers a variety of rights given in Art. 19 Thus a law coming under Art 21. must also satisfy the requirement of Art. 19. Therefore a law made by the state to deprive a person of his personal liberty must prescribe a procedure for such deprivation which must not be arbitrary unfair and unreasonable. Before the decision in Manika care in 1978 the view which prevailed in Supreme Court (Gopalan Case) was that there was no guarantee in our Constitution against arbitrary legislation encroaching upon personal liberty.

8. Principle of Res Judhcat``’- Tie princip`l of rer judhcat` ddnotdr th`t ` pethtinner has no right to move the Supreme Court more than once on the same facts even though the earlier case was disposed of exparte . However the rule of res judicata shall not apply if a fresh petition is filed on new grounds.

New Amendments to the Fundamental Rights

1. 77th Constitution Amendment Act, 1995- The amendment introduced a new Article 16(4A) which provides that the reservation in favour of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes can be made in promotion in the public services.

2. 81st Constitution Amendment Act, 2000- This amendment also adds another Article 16(4B) which provides that the number of unfilled posts of the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other Backward castes shall not be included in the number of fresh vacancies to be filled up. The implication of this amendment is that the number of backlog vacancies shall lie beyond the permissible limit of 50% of vacancies in the reserved category.

3. 82nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2000- This amendment inserts a new proviso in Article 335, which provides that the state may relax the minimum qualifying marks for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes candidates in promotional examinations.

4. 85th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002- It effects further amendment to Article 16(4A) which provides that consequential seniority shall also be taken into consideration in promotions of scheduled caste and the scheduled tribe candidates to various government posts. 5. 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002- This amendment inserts Art. 21A which provides fundamental right to free and compulsory education to children from 6 to 14 year of age in a manner determined by law by the state.

INDIA AND AFRICA ( Historical Background )

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India and Africa countries both suffered heavily under the colonial subjugation. The British Imperialism held sway in India and Southern and Eastern Africa . During colonialism a large number of India workers were transported to the Eastern and Southern Africa countries as workforce for agicultural mining and plantation activities . The colonial India was allotted the role of supplying middle levdl sdrvibes ruch as Duka trading and junhor level tebhnibal and administrative service apart from providing indentured labour to other parts of Africa under the British colonial rule . The first wave of India’s interaction began with the arrival of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi to South Africa in 1893 as a legal counsel . Gandhi saw that 1,50,000 of his countrymen were subjected to all sorts of discrimination and oppression in the white rule of South Africa . He fought racial discrimination and oppression of India people for 21 years from (1906-1913) and his passive resistance become universally recognised as a powerful weapon to fight injustice. Many leaders of Africa National movements including Nelson Mandela drew inspiration from Gandhian Satyagrah ,which placed India- Africa linkages into a bond of special relationship . The ANC (Africa National Congress) founded in 1912 , Nehru met ANS leaders during world conference on oppressed Nationalities held at Brussels he appreciated the struggle of Africa people for their liberation from colonialism.
The second wave of Indian engagement with Africa began after India independence and continued till the end of apartheid in South Africa in 1993 . During this period Indian foreign policy towards South Africa was broadly based on two pillars.
The first was extending every possible support to anti-colonial anti – apartheid struggles of Africa people . India was the first country to raise the issue of apartheid at the U.N . in 1947 . Indian Prime Minister Nehru strove for African- Asian Unity and liberation of African countries during Afro- Asian conference held at Bangdurg (lndonesia) in 1955 . India raised the issues of decolonisation and apartheid at every international forum. Among other things Iodian efforts led to the independence of many countries in 1960s which was declared as Decolonisation Decade by the U.N. Almost all the Africa countries were brought under the umbrella of NAM which provided a much needed forum to African countries to voice their concerns at internatinnal levdl. @s the cnlonhalirm in Nalibia and Ap`rthdid in South Africa endured for longer periods the NAM summit 1986 was held at Harare to focus on these issues .At the instance of India AFRICA (Action for Resisting Invasion Colonialism and Apartheid ) Fund was established to help frontline states in the struggle against apartheid . With the independence of Namibia in March 1990 and end of Apartheid in South Africa in 1993 one of the major goals of Indian Foreign Policy in Africa was fulfilled.
The second pillar of India ‘s foreign policy in Africa has been and continues to be to forge technology cooperation and economic partnership with focus on capacity building . The foundation of this policy was laid with the launching of Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) programme in 1964 . India had the advantage of providing technology that was affordable adaptable and easily accessible to Africa countries . The ITEC programme sought to extend bilateral assistance and cooperation to developing countries, particularly in Africa . It covered the following areas : (i) Extension of technical cooperation (ii) Establishment of mutually beneficial trade relations and (iii) Grant of capital and technical expertise to help build medium and small scale industries.
Indian is also the member of African Capacity Building Foundation and strives to contribute towards human resource development and capacity building in various sectors. Indian diaspora in various Africa Countries has contributed a lot and has earned goodwill for Indian . Basides , the contribution of Indian peace keeping forces through the UN in the maintenance of peace and security in Africa deserves special mention . So far Indian has provided nearly 50,000 peace keepers in 29 UN peace keeping operations .
However , since early 1990s Indian Foreign Policy shifted its focus towards other areas of the world which need a renewed thrust which is underway at present Although Indian’s engagement with Africa is quite low in comparison to China and othdr in qu`ntitative tdrms it has rcordd bdtter in terls of itr image and goodwill through its capacity building programmes.

ANTHROPOLOGY

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PAPER-I
1.1 Meaning and scope of Anthropology.
1.2 Relationship with other disciplines : History , Economics, Sociology, Psychology, Political 1.3Science , Life Science , Medical Science.
Main branches of Anthropology , their scope and relevance
(A) Social – cultural Anthropology
(B) Physical `nd biolngic`l Anthrnpolngy
(C) Archaeological Anthropology .
1.4 Human Evolution and emergence of Man.
Organic Evolution- Theories of evolution in historical perspective , pre-Darwhnian, D`rwinian and Post-Darwinhan perind. Lodern sxnthdtic theory of evolution; brief outline of term and concept of evolutionary biology (Doll’s rule, Cope’s rule, Gause’s rule, parallelism, convergence, adaptive radiation, mosaic evolution); Principles of systematics and taxonomy, major primate taxa, tertiary and quaternary fossil primates, Systematics of Hominoidea and Hominidae, Origin and evolution of man-
‘Home erectus and Homo sapiens’.
1.5Phylogenetic status, characteristics and distribution of the following:
(a) Prepleistocence fossil primates – Oreopithecus.
(b) South and East African hominids Plesianthropus / Australopithecus Africaus , Paranthropus , Australopithecs.
(c) Paranthropus-Homo erectus- Homo erectus javanicus , Homo erectus pekinensis .
(d) Homo Heidelbergensis.
(e) Neanderthal man- La- chapelle-aus-saints(Classical type),Mt. Carmelites types (Progressive type).
(f) Rhodesian man
(g) Homo sapiens-Cromognon, Grimaldi, Chancelede.
Recent advances in understanding the evolution , distribution and multidisciplinary approach to understand a fossil type in relation to others.
1.6 Evolutionary trend and classification of the order primates, Relationship with other mammals , molecular evolution of Primates, Comparative anatomy of man and apes, primate locomotion; terrestrial and arboreal adaptation , skeletal change due to erect posture and its implications.
1.7 Cultural Evolution – broad outlines of prehistoric cultures;
(a) Paleolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Chalcolithic
(e) Copper-Bronze age
(f) Iron age
2.1Family – Definition and typology of family household and domestic groups . Basic structure and functions; Stability and changes in family Typological and processual approaches to the study of family . Impact of urbanization , industrilization , education and ferminist movements.Universality of family a critiqud.
2.2 Concept of kinship-- Definition of jin, incdst prohhbithon exogamy and endogamy .Principles of decent – types and functions . Political and jural aspects of kinship . Unilineal , bilateral and double descent . Descent , filiation and colplelent`ry fili`tion. Khnshhp tdrminolofy , typnlogx and approaches to the study of terminology Alliance and descent.
2.3 Marriage – Definition , type and variation of marriage systems. Debates on the universal definition of marriage. Regulation of marriage – preferential, prescriptive , proscriptive and open systems. Type and form of marriage Dowry, bride-price, pestation and marriage stability.
3.1 Study of culture , patterns and processes. Concept of culture , patterns of culture , relationships between culture and civilization and society.
3.2 Concept of Social Change and Cultural Change :
3.3 Social structure and social organization ,
Role –analysis and social network, institution ,group community. Social stratification; principal and from , status , class and power , gender. Nature and type of mobility.
3.4 Concept of Society.
3.5 Approaches to the study of culture and society- classical evolution – ism neo- - evolutionism , culture ecology, historical particularism and diffusionism , structural- functionalism, culture and personality, transactionalism, symbolism, congnitive approach and new ethnography, post structuraism and post – modernism.
4.1 Definitions and functions of religion . Anthropological approaches to the study of religion – evolutionary , psychological and functional . Magic, witchcraft and sorcery; definitions and funbtions and ftncthonaries ; priest, s`man. medicine m`n and snrcerers . Symbolism in religion and rituals- Ethnomedicine .Myths and rituals; definitions and approaches to their study – structures .function and processual Relation with economics and political structures.
5.1 Meaning ,scope and relevance, principles governing production, distribution and consumption in communities subsisting on hunting- gathering fishing pastoralism, horticulture and other economic pursuits .Fomalist and substantivist debate- Dalton, Karlpolyanny and Marx approach and New Economic Anthropology . Exchange; gifts, barter, trade ceremonial exchange and market economy.
5.2 Theoretical foundations. Type of political organisations- band, tribe, chiefdom, state, concept of power , authority and legitimacy . Social control, law and justice in tribal and peasant societies.
6.1 Concept of developmental Anthropological perspective . Models of development .Critiques of classical developmental theories . Concepts of planning and planned development .Concept of participatory development . Culture ecology and sustainable development . Displacement and rehabilitation.
7.1 Concept of research in anthropology, subjectivity and reflexivity in terms of gender class, ideology and ethics. Distinction between methodology , methods and techniques. Nature and explantion in anthropological research. Positivistics and non-positivistic approaches. Comparative methods; nature purpose and methods of comparison in social and cultural anthropology. Basic techniques of data collection. Interview , participant and other forms of observation, schedules, questionnaire ,case-study methods, extended case-study methods , life histories and secondary sources, oral history, genealogical methods , participatory, learning and assessment (PLA). Participatory rapid assessment (PRA).Analysis, interpretation and presentation of data.
8.1 Concept , scope and major branches of human genetics. Its relationship with other branches of science and medicine.
8.2 Method for study of genetic principles in man-family study (pedigree analysis , twin study , foster child, co-twin method, cytogenetic method, chromosomal and karyotype analysis ) biochemical methods, immunological methods, D.N.A. technology and recombinant technologies.
8.3 Twin study method – zygosify , heritablity estimates, present status of the twin study method and its applications.
8.4 Mendelian genetics in man – family study, single factor ,multifactor, lethal, sub-lethal , and polygenic inheritance in man.
8.5 Concept of genetic polymorphism and selection , Mendelian population, Hardy- Weinberg law; causes and change which bring down frequlation , mutation, isolation , migration , selection, inbreddinf and genetib drhft. Conrangtinenus `nd non-bons`nguineous , genetic load , genetic effect of consanguineous and cousin marriages (statistical and probability methods for study of human genetics).
8.6 Chromosomes and chromosomal aberrations in man , methodology.
(a) Numerical and structural aberrations (disorders).
(b) Sex chromosomal aberrations- Klinefelter (XXY). Turner (XO), Super female (XXX), intersex and other syndromic disorders.
(c) Autosomal aberrations- Down syndrome, Patau, Edward and Cri-du-chat syndromes.
(d) Genetic imprints in human disease , genetic screening , genetic counselling , human DNA profiling , gene mapping and genome study.
8.7 Concept of race in histrological and biological perspective. Race and racism, biological basic of morphological variation of non-metric and metric characters. Racial criteria , racial traits in relation to heredity and environment; biological basic of racial classification, racial differentiation and race- crossing in man.
8.8 Ethnic groups of mankind- characteristics and distribution in world, racial classification of human groups. Principal living peoples of world. Their distribution and characteristics.
8.9 Age , sex and population variation in genetic marker- ABO, Rh blood groups, HLA, Hp, transferring, Gm, blood enzymes. Physiological characteristics- Hp level , body fat pulse rate, respiratory functions and sensory perceptions in different cultural and socio- economic groups. Impact of smoking air pollutions , alcoholism, drugs and occupational hazards on health.
9.1 Concept and Methods of Ecological Anthropology, Adaptation social and cultural . Deterministic theories-a critique. Resources-biological, non-biological and sustainable development . Biological adaptation –climatic, environmental, nutritional and genetic.
10.1 Relevance in understanding of contemporary society. Dynamics of ethnicity at rural, tribal , urban and international levels. Ethnic conflicts and political developments . Concept of ethnic boundaries. Ethnicity and concept of nation state.
11.1 Concept of human growth and development – stages of growth-prenatal , natal, infant, childhood, adolescence, maturity , senescence.
Factors affecting growth and development- genetic, environmental , biochemical , nutritional, cultural and socio-economic.
Ageing and senescence. Theories and observations- biological and chronological longevity . Human physique and somatotypes. Methodologies for growth studies.
12.1 Reproductive biology , demography and population study. Reproductive physiology of male and female . Biological aspects of human fertility . Relevance of menarche, menopause and other bioevents to fertility. Fertility patterns and differentials.
12.2 Demographic theories – biological, social and cultural.
12.3 Demographic methods – census , registration system, sample methods, duel reporting system.
12.4 Population structures and population dynamics.
12.5 Demographic rates and ratios , life table- structure and utility.
12.6 Biological and socio-ecological factors influencing fecundity , fertility natality and mortality .
12.7 Methods of studying population growth.
12.8 Biological consequences of population control and family welfare.
13.1 Anthropology of sports.
13.2 Nutritional Anthropology.
13.3 Anthropology in designing of defence and other equipments.
13.4 Forensic Anthropology.
13.5 Methods and principles of personal identification andreconstruction.
13.6 Applied human genetics- paternity diagnosis genetic counselling and eugenics.
13.7 DNA technology – prevention and cure of diseases.
13.8 Anthropo-genetics in medicine
13.9 Serogenetics and cytogenetics in reproductive biology.
13.10 Application of statistical principles in human genetics and Physical Anthropology.
PAPER –II
Evolution of the Indian Culture and Civilization- Per historic (Paleolithic , Mesolithic and Neolithic ), Protohistoric (Indus Civilization), Vedic and post- Vedic beginnings. Contributions of the tribal cultures.
Demographic profile of India- Ethinic and linguistic elements in the Indian population and their distribution. Indian population , factors influencing its structure and growth.
The basic structure and nature of traditional Indian social system-a critique , varnasharam, Purushartha , Karma, Rina and Rebirth. Theories on the origin of caste system, Jajmani system. Structural basic of inequality in traditional Indian society . Impact of Buddhim, Jainism, Islam and Christianity on Indian society.
Approaches to the study of Indian society and culture – traditional and contemporary.
5.1 Aspects of Indian village – Social organizations of agriculture, impact of market economy on Indian villages.
5.2 Linguistic and religious minorities- social , political and economic status.
6. Tribal situation in India- biogenetic variability , Iinguistic and socio-economic characteristics of the tribal populations and their distribution. Problems of the tribal communities – land alienation , poverty indebtedness, low literacy ,poor educational facilities , unemployment , underemployment , health and nutrition . Developmental projects –tribal displacement and problems of rehabilitation;
Development of forest policy and tribals of unbanisation and industrialization on tribal and rural populations.
7. Problems ofexploitation and deprivation of Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. Constitutional safeguards for Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes. Social change and contemporary tribal societies; Impact of modern democratic institutions, development programmes and welfare measures on tribals for weaker sections. Emergence of ethnicity , tribal movements and quest for identity . Pseudo-tribalism.
8. Social change among the tribes during colonial and post- Independent India.
8.1 Impact of Hinduism, Christianity, Islam and other religious on tribal societies.
8.2 Tribe and nation state –a comparative study of tribal communities in Indian and other countries.
9. History of administration of tribal areas, tribal policies , plans, programmes of tribal development and their implementation . Role of N.G.Os.
9.1 Role of anthropology in tribal and rural development .
9.2 Contributions of anthropology to the understanding of regionalism, communalism and ethnic and political movements.