BOTANY

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PAPER-I

1. Microbiology and Plant Pathology- Viruses, bacteria , and plasmids – structure and reproduction . General account of infection, Phytoimmunology . Applications of microbiology in agriculture , industry, medicine and pollution control in air , soil and water.Important plant diseases caused by viruses , bacteria , mycoplasma , fungi and nematodes . Mode of infection and dissemination . Molecular basis of infection and disdase reshstance/ defdnce. Phxsiology of pararitirm and cnntrol measures. Fungal toxins.2. Cryptogams – Algae, Fungi , Bryophytes, Pteridophytes- structure and reproduction from evolutionary viewpoint . Distribution of Cryptogams in India and their economics potential.

3. Phanerogams : Gymnosperms- Concept of Progymonosperms. Classification and distribution of Gymnosperms . Salient features of Cycadales, Conferrals and Gnetales, their structures and reproduction . General account of Cycadofilicales , Bennettitales and cordaitales.

Angiosperms- Systematics , anatomy , embryology, palynology and phylogeny

Comparative account of various systems of Angiosperm classification . Study of angiospermic families – Magnoliaceae, Ranunculaceae, Brassicaceae (Cruciferae), Rosaceae, Leguminosae, Euphorbiaceae, Malvaceae, Dipterocarpaceae, Apiaceae (Umbelliferae), Asclepiadaceae, Verbenaceae, Solanaceae, Rubiaceae, Cucurbitaceae, Asteraceae (Composite) , Poaceae (Gramineae) , Arecaceae (Palmae) Liliaceae, Musaceae, Orchidaceae

Stomata and their types Anomalous secondary growth, Anatomy of C 3 and C 4 plants.

Development of male and female gametophytes, pollination, fertilization. Endosperm its development and function, Patterns of embryo development. Polymbryony, apoxmix ,Applications of palynology.

4. Plant Utility and Exploitation – Origin of cultivated plants, Vavilov’s centres of Origin. Plants as sources for food , fodder, fibres, spices, beverages, drugs, narcotics , insecticides, timber , gums, resins and dyes.

Latex, cellulose Starch and their products. Perfumery. Importance of Ethnobotany in Indian context.Energy plantation. Botanical Gardens and Herbaria.

5. Morphogenesis–Totipotency ,polarity, symmetry and differentiation, Cell, tissue, organ and protoplast culture. Somatic hybrids and Cybrids.

PAPER- II

1. Cell Biology – Techniques of Cell Biology . Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells structural and ultrastructural details. Structure and ftncthon nf extrabelltlar matrix nf EBM (bell wall) and mdmbr`nes- cell adhesion , membrane transport and vesicular transport .Structure and function of cell organelles (chloroplasts , mitochondria, ER, ribosomes, endosomes, lysosomes, peroxisomes, hydrogenosome). Nucleus, nucleolus nuclear pore complex . Chromatin and nucleosome. Cell signaling and cell receptors. Signal transduction (G-1 proteins , etc). Mitosis and meisolosis; molecular basis of cell cycle . Numerical and structural variations in chromosomes and their significance. Study of polytene , lampbrush and B- chromosomes- structure , behaviour and significance.

2. Genetics , Molecular Biology and Evolution – Development of genetics , and gene versus allele concepts (Pseudoalleles). Quantitative genetics and multiple factors. Linakage and crossing over- methods of gene mapping including molecular maps (idea of mapping function). Sex chromosomes and sex linked inheritance, sex determination and molecular basis of sex differentiation . Mutation (biochemical and molecular basis). Cytoplasmic inheritance and cytoplasmic genes (including genetics of male sterility). Prions and prion hypothesis. Structure and synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins .Genetic code and regulation of gene expression. Multigene families . Organic evolution – evidences, mechanism and theories . Role of RNA in origin and evolution.

3. Plant Breeding , Biotechnology and Biostatistics- Methods of plant breeding- Introduction , selection and hybridization (Pedigree, backcross, mass selection , bulk method.) Male sterility and heterosis breeding . Use of apomixes in plant breeding . Micropropagation and genetic engineering – methods of transfer of genes and transgenic crops; development and use of molecular markers in plant breeding .Standard deviation and coefficient of variation (CV) . Tests of significance (Z – test, t- test and chi- square tests). Probability and distributions (normal, binomial and poisson distributions). Correlation and regression.

4. Physiology and Biochemistry- Water relations , Mindral nutritinn and ion transport , mhneral deficiencies . Photosynthesis- Photochemical reactions , photophosphorylation and carbon pathways including C pathway (photorespiration), C.C and CAM pathways . Respiration (anaerobic and aerobic, including fermentation – electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation . Chemiosmotic theory and ATP synthesis. Nitrogen fixation and nitrogen metabolism. Enzymes, coenzymes , energy transfer and energy conservation . Importance of secondary metabolites . Pigments as photoreceptors (plastidial pigments and phytochrome). Photoperiodism and flowering . vernalization, senescence. Growth substances – their chemical nature , role and applications in agri- horticulture, growth indices, growth movements . Stress physiology (heat, water, salinity , metal). Fruit and seed physiology. Dormancy , storage and germination of seed . Fruit ripening – it s molecular basis and manipulation.

5. Ecology and Plant Geography- Ecological factors. Concepts and dynamics of community . Plant succession . Concept of biosphere. Ecosystems and their conservation . Pollution and its control (including phytoremediation ).Forest types of India – Afforestation, deforestation and social forestry. Endangered plants , endemism and Red Data Books. Biodiversity . Convention of Biological Diversity, Sovereign Rights and Intellectual Property Rights. Biogeochemical cycles . Global warming.

How To Make Successful Decisions

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Decisive Decision- Making : How To Know When You’ve Made Up Your Mind
How You can appear decisive
Even if one cannot actually decide once and for all whether to stay in a certain profession or not , there are a number of simple principles one could follow to ensure that one appears decisive.
Mentioning any one decision frequently , over a long period , always in the same terms , soon leads people to belheve you to be indechsivd . Never sax ‘I can’t ddcidd’. Ray ‘I haven’t decided yet’. Better still , say ‘Ask me next week/ month./ term. I shall decide this weekend / at the end of the month/ in the holidays’. Statements like these give the impression you are working to a plan, rather than aimlessly pondering .
One should not discuss his decision with everyone he knows. This is a mistake. Reserve serious discussions about a decision for people who can truly help you to make the right decision .Ask people only those questions they can reasonably be expected to answer informatively.
After taking someone’s advice, you should not go over the same ground again with other people . Not only will this kind of behaviour make you appear indecisive, it will also annoy the person whose advice you first took. Unless you make it clear that their advice has contributed to your understanding and moved you on to the next stage of decision – making , they will feel their advice has been discarded .Don’t ask the some questions over and over again , and if you must go over exactly the same points with more than one person , do it discreety.
If you know you have not made up your mind yet, don’t allow people to take action as if you had . Be clear and honest, Say ‘Don’t do anything about this yet –I will let you know when I’ve finally decided’. People understand that some decisions take a long time to make . What they object to is not so much waiting as being led up the garden path.
There is no need to go public on a decision prematurely . People are nearly always less interested in the details of your life than you imagine them to be .Tell those who need to know when they need to know .Tell those who are interested when they ask.
Discriminate explicitly between more and less serious decisions. If you treat deciding whether to paint the living – room green or blue with the same weight as deciding whether to move house you will quickly acquire the reputation of a ditherer. Sometimes, make a point of deciding a fairly trivial matter nn the spur nf the mnment . @t other timds, ray that a particular decision is going to need thinking about . This will give people the impression that you only spend time on a decision when it is necessary and not as a result of some character flaw.
Very the confidence with which you announce your decision . If you always claim your decision to be definitely right, you will be discounted , quite rightly, as arrogant .If you always qualify your decision with ‘I” m not sure if this is the right things but …….. then you will certainly not be seen as decisive .When not, admit to some doubts , but make it clear that your decision is based on your best understanding and that it needed to be made. Tell people the time – limits attached to particular decisions if there are any. If you have planned to review a decision after two years, when you do so you will be seen as organized, not dithering.
If you relay need to change your mind, try to represent the change as progress, rather than a simple U- turn .Say ‘I’ve just thought of a slightly better way to tackle this ‘ or ‘Let’s not only do such – and – such but also so- and –so’. Let a little time elapse before you reverse a decision , and then say ‘I’ve been thinking about things. We didn’t consider something important and it sheds a new light on things.’ Even with this approach, you must stick to a decision once made much more often than you reverse one.
It can be better to make a possibly bad decision decisively and move on rather than spend lots of time debating it. People’s memories are short , and provided you do actually move on and don’t spend time on postmortems and regrets you will usually carry them with you.
Finally, if you are sure you have made a bad mistake, don’t sacrifice your happiness or security just for the sake of appearing decisive. All other things being equal , to appear decisive is a good thing, but if you’ve left home and heartily wish you hadn’t if you’ve given up work to look after your children and it’s driving you crazy , or if you’ve bookdd a holhday you knov yot won’t dnjox , them othdr consideration than how decisive you appear are paramount. People who acknowledge they have made mistakes are respected. It’s just that people who make too many are suspected of bad management.
The two keys to true decisiveness
To return now to the reality from the appearance, there are two qualities you need to cultivate in order to become truly decisive. The first is imagination .The second is discipline . Lots of people have one or the other of these , but both are required for effective decision – making.
You use your imagination to understand as fully as you can how your decision might work out in practice . The mother of a two – year old who is contemplating moving to the country must imagine what her decision will mean when her child is of school age, and when he is a thoroughly sociable teenager. The confirmed bachelor contemplating marriage will need all his resources of imagination and more , to foresee how every detail of his life will change . In all decision , the more imaginatively you can approach them , the more able you will be to make a decision you can stick to in the future.
Discipline is what you need to progress from early uncertainty to a point where you know what to do. You will face up to and assess the implications your imagination has enabled you to identify You will stop when the deadline arrives. You will plan who to talk to and when.
Of course , much of this series of articles up to now has been concerned with practical ways you can cultivate both imagination and discipline in your decision – making. For it is not easy to be decisive. In a world of uncertainty, where at any time something totally unexpected may, happen it is one of the most difficult qualities to achieve.

MAT EXAM ( MANAGMENT APTITUDE TEST )

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ELGIBILITY : Graduate in any discipline from a recognized university Final year Degree Course students can also apply.
How To APPLY : ● Obtain MAT Bulletin & Application Form by post , by sending a Demand Draft for Rs. 790/- to AIMA-CMS, drawn in favour of “All India Management Association – CMS” payable at New Delhi alongwith two self- addressed slips/ adhesive stickers. OR ● Obtain MAT Bulletin & Application Form on cash payment of Rs. 750/ - at AIMA counter at Delhi (Phone : 24653382, 41757046), Select Bank of Baroda Branches , AIMA Study Centres & Others Outlets.
Availability of MAT Bulletin is till : 12 November 2008 (Wednesday).
Last Date for Submission of
filled in forms at AIMA, New Delhi is : 17 November 2008 (Monday).
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AIMSA STUDY CENTRES WITH PHONE NOS. FOR SALE OF MAT FORM
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CIVIL SERVICES (Pre.) EXAM. , 2008 (Solved Paper )

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Public Administration (Held on 18-5-2008)

Q.1.Which one of following is not a/ an approach / method / principle for organization development (OD)?

(A). Grid approach

(B). Survey feedback method

(C). Process consultation

(D). Peter principle

Q.2.In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton which the concern for people ?

(A). Concern for external environment

(B). Boncdrn for flexhbilhty

(C). Cnncern fnr produbtion

(D). Boncdrn for managing change

Q.3.Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?

(A). Charismatic

(B). Exploitive- authoritative

(C). Consultative

(D). Participative- group

Q.4. Consider the following statements about variable budgets-

(1). Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.

(2). Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.

(3). Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)1 and 3 only

(C)2 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q. 5. Who is / are the author (S) of the well – know book : Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intra- group conflicts in a organization ?

(A) A. F Stoner and E. Freeman

(B) K. Smith and D. Berg

(C) S. Ghoshal

(D) C.K . Prahlad

Q.6. John Woodward is know for her contribution in which area ?

(A) Task technology approach to organizational design

(B) Environmental approach to organizational design

(C) Communication system in an organizational

(D) Feedback control in an organizational

Q.7. What did the Bhore Committee deal with ?

(A) Technical education in India

(B) Public health in India

(C) Development of airport in India

(D) Development of ports in India

Q.8. Which of the following has/ have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act. 2005 unless the competemt authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information ?

1. Information in respect of intellectual property the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party.

2. Information in his available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office ?

(A) By an order of the State Chidf Inforlatinn Cnmmirsioner

(B) By the Ruprdme Bourt of India

(C) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court on a reference made to it by the Governor has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed

(D) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a Judge of a High Court

Q.10. Which one among the following conducts the Census of Central Government Employees and publishes the Report thereof ?

(A) Ministry of statistics and programme Implementation Government of India

(B) Directorate General of Employment and Training Ministry of Labour , Government of India

(C) Planning Commission of India

(D) Registrar General of India , Ministry of Home Affairs Government of India

Q.11. Consider the following statements –

1. The central staffing scheme for the central government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission

2.The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services .

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions ?

(A) Gouldner
(B) Merton

(C) Barnard
(D) Simon

Q.13. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers-

(A) Are essentially lazy

(B) Are motivated only by more pay.

(C) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions

(D) Obey orders of immediate superiors

Q.14. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labelled under situational design theory ?

(A) Behavioural approach

(B) Neo- classical approach

(C) Contingency approach

(D) Bureaucratic model

Q.15. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization ?

(A) H.A. Simon

(B) J.D. Millet

(C) Peter Drucjer

(D) Bhester Barn`rd

Q.16. Which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven ?

1. Coercive power

2. Technical power

3. Police power

4. Legitimate power

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 2,3 and 4

(C) 2,4 and 5
(D) 1,3 and 5

Q.17. In Management Grid Theory of Blake and Mouton when the concern for people is the highest what is the leadership pattern called ?

(A) Impoverished

(B) People- centric

(C) Team Manager

(D) Country Club

Q.18. Which of the following of are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs ?

1. Aggressiveness

2. Desire to attain fame

3. Independence

4. Self- confidence

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2,3 and 4

(B) 2,3,4 and 5

(C) 1,3 and 5

(D) 1,2,4 and 5

Q.19. Consider the following statements about Motivation-

1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.

2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.

3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Q.20. Consider the following statements –

Ethics Reforms Act , 1989 passed by the U.S Congress was an improvements over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that-

1.It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.

2.It created the Officer of personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.

3.It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.

4.It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 4 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Q.21. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom ?

(A) N. Umapathy

(B) Amilai Etzioni

(C) Deming

(D) Chris Argyris

Q.22. Consider the following statements-

The essential difference between closed and open modelr of orfanizatinn ir differhng percdptinn about,

1.Hulan nature .

2.Organizational environment

3.Role and significance of organization in society.

4.Management’s role in organization.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2,3 and 4

(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 4

Q.23. The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following ?

(A) Customer driven government

(B) Entrepreneurial government

(C) Rationality in decision making

(D) Down-sizing of bureaucracy

Q.24. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following ?

1. Rick taking ability

2. Ecological sensitivity

3. Delegation of authority

4. Concern for the disadvantaged

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 3,4 and 5

(C) 1,4 and 5 (D) 2,4 and 5

Q.25. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features ?

1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.

2. Legitimacy is derived from charisma.

3. Person giving order has sacred and outstanding characteristics.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.26. Match list- with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I (Concept)

(a)Functional foremanship

(b)Constructive conflict

(c)Scalar principle

(d)Grapevine
List- II(Contributor)

1. L. Urwick
2. F. Taylor

3. E. Mayo
4. M. Weber
5. M.Follet

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)2315
(B)1543
(C)2513
(D)1345

Q.27. Match list with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I(Book)

(a)Human Organization

(b)Theory of Social and Economic Organization

(c)New Patterns of Management

(d)The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization

List- II(Author)

1.Rensis Likert

2.Elton Mayo

3.Henry Fayol

4.Max Weber

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)3412
(B)2143
(C)3142
(D)2413


Q.28. According to classical theorists how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an adminirtrative organization characterized ?

1. It hs the ultim`te task of the head of the organization only.

2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.

3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.29. Legitimacy of rule , according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following ?

1. Tradition

2. Charisma

3. Electoral verdict

4. Professional competence

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1,3 and 4 only

(D)1,2,3 and 4

Q.30. which one of the following is not a post behavioural tenet in the trinity of post Modern Public Administration ?

(A) Critical Theory

(B) Neo Taylorism

(C) Rational Theory

(D) Public Choice Theory

Q.31. Which of the following are the characteristics of New Public Management ?

1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship .

2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation .

3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.

4. Separation of units within a public sector enterprise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1,2 and 4 only

(B)2,3 and 4 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2,3 and 4

Q.32. Match list – I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I

(a)Public Administration studies have to be comparative to claim the status of a science

(b)Development administration is goal and action oriented

(c)Bureaucratic structures are necessary but not sufficient

(d)Development is both process and purpose

List- II

1.Weidner

2.Hahn- Been Lee

3.R. Dahl

4.V. Ostrom

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)3241
(B)4132
(C)3142
(D)4231


Q.33. Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched ?














Thought/ ConceptScholar
1. Hierarchical Pyramid would not so much flatten
as a result of computers as spread into a bell shape
Y.Dror
2. A change in economic organization that makes one
or more members of society better off without
making anyone worse off
vilfredo Pareto
3. Metapolicy Policy for policy making proceduresJohn Pfiffner


Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)2 only

(B)3 only

(C)1 and 2 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.34. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves-

(A)Ecological , structural – functional empirical and nomothetic approaches

(B)Non- ecological , prescriptive ideographic approaches

(C)Adoption of legal – formal institutional approaches

(D)Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches

Q.35. Consider the following statements –

Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on-

1.A science of administration.

2.A more businesslike administration.

3.Efficiency , economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration .

4.The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1,2 and 3

(D)1,3 and 4

Q.36. Consider the following statements –

According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of Public Administration is not possible because-

1.It involves problems of normative values.

2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.37. Consider the following statements-

Public – Private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to-

1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology.

2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.38. Consider the following statements-

In the course of Waldo- Simon debate on the theme of Science of administration Waldo questioned Simon’s facts- values’ division, as-

1.An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.

2.A way of purging administration of politics.

3.Making a mere logical division of politics and administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.39. Consider the following statements-

1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.

2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.

Which of the following given above is / are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.40. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization-

1. Professional identification is not maintained.

2. Conflict in organization authority exists.

3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.41. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following ?

(A) Behaviour and attitude of a person

(B) Skill- set and compensation of an employee

(C) The leadership styles of two managers

(D) Motivational needs of two employees

Q.42. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Salary - Motivator

(B) Status - Hygiene factor

(C) Growth - Motivator

(D) Security - Hygiene factor

Q.43. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1. Situational leadership theory
- Hersey- Blanchard
2. Path goal theory
- Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model
- The University of Michigan Studies

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.44. Consider the following statements-

1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust , with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government , functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.

2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.45. Which one of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities ?

1. Urban poverty alleviation.

2. Planning for economic and social development.

3. Regulation for tanneries.

4. Urban forestry.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3 only

(B) 2,3 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 4 only

(D) 1,2,3 and 4

Q.46. Consider the following statements-

1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and , for the first time , bicameral.

2. Before independence , while under all the previous Governments of India Acts, the Governments of India was India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.47. Which of the following statements is/ are correct in respect of the Constitution of India ?

1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November , 1949.

2. The provisions relation to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November , 1949.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.48. Consider the following statements-

1. The Constitution (Seventy- third Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India.

2. The Constitution (Seventy fourth Amendment)Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new Schedule in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.49. Consider the following statements –

All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,

1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the Presidents of India.

2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.

3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is correct ?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only
(D) None

Q.50. Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill?

1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.

2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.

3. Alteration of any tax

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Q.51. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ?

(A) Finance Commission of the concerned State

(B) Legislature of the State.

(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(D) District Collector

Q.52. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to condition of service of members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission ?

(A) President of India

(B) Parliament

(C) Union Minister of Law

(D) Chairman Union Public Service Commission

Q.53. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

(A) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment

(B) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment

(C) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment

(D) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide

Q.54. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office/ Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey ?

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

(C) Planning Commission

(D) Cabinet Secretariat

Q.55. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, Who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission ?

(A) P. Chidambaram

(B) Manmohan Singh

(C) Jaswant Singh

(D) Yashwant Sinha

Directions- (Q. 56-60) Each of the next Five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below :

Codes :

(A)Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)(A) is false but (R) is true

Q.56. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public Administration.

Reason (R) : The second Minnowbrook Conference followed the First Minnowbrook Conference after twenty years.

Q.57. Assertion (A) : ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.

Reason (R) : Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits.

Q.58. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the property of direct application to practical situations.

Reason (R) : It is descriptive,probabilistic and multivariate.

Q.59. Assertion (A) : Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.

Reason (R) : Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving.

Q.60. Assertion (A) : Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.

Reason (R): Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization.

Q.61. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred E. Fiedler that helps determine which leadership stvle will be effective?

(A) Environmental pressures and workplace demands

(B) Leader- member relations

(C) Task structures

(D) Leader’s position power

Q.62. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India ?

1. Panchayati Raj institutions

2. Communal violence.

3. An integrated domestic market.

4. Central Law Enforcement Agency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1,2 and 3 only

(D) 1,2,3 and 4

Q.63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the ‘National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution’ constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000?

(A) A.M. Ahmadi

(B) A.S Anand

(C) M.N. Venkatachalaish

(D) J.S. Verma

Q.64. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?

1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.

2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.

3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life of liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.65. The States’ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 2005-2010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations ?

(A) 11th Finance Commission

(B) 12th Finance Commission

(C) National Development Council

(D) Planning Commission

Q.66. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference ?

1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.

2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by founding from the University Grants Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.67. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date ?

(A) 1.4.2008
(B) 1.4.2009

(C)1.4.2010
(D) 1.4.2011

Q.68. Match list- I with – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I(Commission/ Post of the Union of India)

(a)Finance Commission

(b)Union Public Service Commission

(c)Election Commission

(d)Comptroller and Auditor General of India

List-II (Article of the Constitution of India)

1. 148
2. 280

3. 315
4. 324


















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)4123
(B)2341
(C)4321
(D)2143


Q.69. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ?

(A) The Ministry of Agriculture

(B) The Ministry of Water Resources

(C) The Ministry of Rural Development

(D) The Ministry of Environment and Forests

Q.70. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA & ULR)-

1. The scheme is being implements by the State Governments.

2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50: 50 funds sharing basis.

3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1and 2 only

(B) 2and 3 only

(C) 1and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.71. Consider the following statements-

1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.

2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.72. Who among the following further developed the Politics – Administration dichotomy- a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stages of the evolution of Public Administration ?

(A) H. Fayol
(B) L. Gulick

(C) L. Urwick
(D) F. Goodrow

Q.73. Match list- I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I

(A)Talcott Parsons

(B)Frederick Herzberg

(C)Anthony Downs

(D)M.P. Follett

List- II

1.Creative Experience

2. Inside Bureaucracy

3. The Structure of Social Action

4. Work and the Nature of Man

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)2431
(B)3124
(C)2134
(D)3421


Q.74. The Second Minnowbrook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following ?

(A) Nomological deductivism

(B) Professionalisation of public administration

(C) Debureaucratisation of administration

(D) All inclusiveness of the term public

Q.75. Which of the following pairs is / are correctly matched ?

1.The Profession of Government - B. Chapman

2. Development Administration - La Palambora

3. Bureaucracy and Political Development - Appleby

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only

Q.76. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems , made possible by rising level of diffraction.

Who among the following gave the above definition ?

(A) Edward Weidner

(B) Ferrel Heady

(C) Fred W. Riggs

(D) Montgomery and W. Siffin

Q.77. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following ?

(A) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries

(B) A more meaningful role by public servants in development

(C) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization

(D) Induction of sophisticated technology even without an adequate infrastructure

Q.78. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund(RIDF)-

1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001.

2. Presently , only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1nor 2

Q.79. The ‘Line and Staff’ from of organization first originated in which one of the following ?

(A) Educational Administration

(B) Municipal Administration

(C) Military Administration

(D) Public Administration

Q.80. Match list- I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I

(a) Frederick Taylor

(b) Chester I. Barnard

(c) Chris Argyris and E. Bakke

(d) Kurt Lewin

List- II

1. Field Force Model

2. Fusion Process Theory

3. Zone of indifference

4. Pig iron experiment

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)4123
(B)2341
(C)4321
(D)2143


Q.81. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following ?

1. Differential piecework plan.

2. Separation of planning and execution.

3. Time study.

4. Assuming worker as machine.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,3 and 4 only

(B) 1,2 and 4 only

(C) 1,2,3and 4

(D) 2 and 3 only

Q.82. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol ?

(A) Relating to production and adaptation

(B) Relating to buying and selling

(C) Relating to liaison with the governments

(D) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital

Q.83. Consider the following statements-

1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.

2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(A)1 only

(B)2 only

(C)Both 1 and 2

(D)Neither 1 nor 2

Q.84. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization ?

(A) Effective use of specialized facilities

(B) Effective use of specialized knowledge

(C) Unambiguous responsibility assignment

(D) Effective top- management control

Q.85. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit ?

1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.

2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority

3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.

4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 2,3,4and 1

(B) 3,1,2and 4

(C) 2,1,3and 4

(D)3,4,2 and 1

Q.86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I(Subject)

(A)Nonprogrammed decisions

(B)Programmed decisions

(C)Emphasis on data storage

(D)Emphasis on data manipulation
List- II (Related to)

1.Lower- level managers

2. Upper- level managers

3. Decision support system

4. Management Information System

















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)2134
(B)1234
(C)1243
(D)2143


Q.87. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization ?

(A) Job design

(B) Work measurement

(C) Decision under uncertainty

(D) Training program for new recruits

Q.88. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U.K.-

The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for-

1. A complete overhaul of administrative training

2. More professionalism.

3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 2

Q.89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

Feature Type of Budget
1. Allows no proper incentive for managers : Incremental budget
to develop innovative ideas
2. Increases staff motivation : Zero – based budget
3. The R & D department is threatened : Zero – based budget
whereas production department benefits
4. The impact of change can be seen quickly : Incremental budget

Select the correct answer using the code given below –

(A)1,2 and 3 only

(B)2,3 and 4 only

(C)1 and 4 only

(D)1,2,3 and 4

Q.90. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution ?

(A) French Revolution of 1789

(B) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847

(C) The Civil Service Act of 1946

(D) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948

Q.91. “We are no longer confronted with several Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be applied equally well to public and private affairs”.

These views are assigned to whom ?

(A)Frederick Taylor

(B)L .Urwick

(C)Henri Fayol

(D)Frank Goodnow

Q.92. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors ?

1. The need to avoid over- lapping and confusion in the organization.

2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.

3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 2 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.93. Participative style of leadership become popular during and after the era of which one of the following ?

(A) Systems theory

(B) Behavioural theory

(C) Human Relations theory

(D) Scientific Management theory

Q.94. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A. Etzioni ?

(A) Programme, Organizational and Normative

(B) Budgetary , personnel and Utilitarian

(C) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian

(D) Coercive, Normative and Organizational

Q.95. Who among the following are authors of the vell, knnw wnrk – Adlinirtrative Beh`viotr : A study of Decision – Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?

(A) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard

(B) H.A Simon and Chester I. Barnard

(C) F. Herzberg and A. Maslow

(D) A. Maslow and Chester I. Barnard

Q.96. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries ?

(A) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation

(B) Ministry of Rural Development

(C) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Q.97. What is / are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication ?

1. Cultural

2. Perceptual

3. Ideological

4. Technological

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2,3 and 4

Q.98. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social – psychological tradition ?

1. The idea goes against the open model.

2. It is against the closed model.

3. It ascribes special characteristics to some member in an organization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 only

Q.99. In the U.K the Citizen and the Administration : Redress of Grievances was published by which Report ?

(A) Whyatt Report

(B) Atkinson Report

(C) William Report

(D) Northcote- Trevelyan Report

Q.100. Effective public participation development projects majorly needs which of the following ?

1. Occasional consultation

2. Active association with the whole project cycle

3. Administrative initiative more than people’s initiative

4. Gender sensitivity

5. Poverty sensitivity

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 2,4 and 5

(C) 2,3 and 4 (D) 1,4 and 5

Q.101. Match list- I with list- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I

(a)Job enrichment

(b)Zone of acceptance

(c) Self- actualization

(d)Mixed scanning

List- II

1. H. Simon

2. Etzioni

3. Chester Barnard

4. A. Maslow

5. F. Herzberg


















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)5432
(B)2145
(C)5142
(D)2435


Q.102. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘State mystifying’ institution?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mao- Tse- Tung

(C) Karl Marx

(D) V.I. Lenin

Q.103. “Administration is a moral act and an administrator is a moral agent”.

This statement is credited to whom among the following ?

(A)L.D. White

(B)F.A.Nigro

(C)O. Tead

(D)C. Merriam

Q.104. Consider the following statements about budget-

1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration.

2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration .

3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document.

4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 4 only

(B)1,2 and 3

(C)2,3 and 4

(D)1,3 and 4

Q.105. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally attributed to which of the following ?

1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait.

2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem.

3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compremise.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)1 and 3 only

(C)2 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists –

List- I

(a)Davis Committee

(b)Masterman Committee

(c)Second Hoover Committee

(d)Franks Committee

List- II

1.Political activities of Civil Servants

2.Senior Executive Service

3. Official Secrets Act

4. Method- II
















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)4123
(B)2341
(C)4321
(D)2143


Q.107. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is fully owned by-

(A)The Government of India only

(B)The Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India

(C)The Reserve Bank of India only

(D)The Government of India and the Life Insurance Corporation of India

Q.108. The Code of Ethics for public services developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following ?

1. Respect for public interest , Constitution and laws.

2. Personal integrity , professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations

3. High salaries , quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.109. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A. ?

(A) F. Roosevelt

(B) A. Jackson

(C) T. Jefferson

(D) G. Washington

Q.110. Match list- I with list- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List- I
(Body/Feature)

(a)National Personnel Authority

(b)Constitution contains only ‘Seven Articles’

(c)Doctrine of Rule of Law

(d)Commune – A unit of local self- government
List-II
(Country)

1.United States of America

2. France

3. U.K.

4. Japan
















Codes(A)(B)(C)(D)
(A)3241
(B)4132
(C)3142
(D)4231


Q.111. Consider the following statements-

Informal organizations / groups within formal ones come into being because-

1.They are created by the top management in an organization.

2. They facilitate communication within different units/ levels of an organization.

3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A)1 and 2 only

(B)1 and 3 only

(C)2 and 3 only

(D)1,2 and 3

Q.112. Consider the following statements-

In the ambiguous and uncertainty- ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense- making perspective under which-

1.Preferences may be easy to identify.

2.Choices may be contradictory and unclear.

3.Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(A)1,2 and 3

(B)2 and 3 only

(C)1 only

(D)1 and 3 only

Q.113. Who among the following used the systems framework in his analysis of governmental organizations ?

(A) Philip Selznick

(B) H.A Simon

(C) Dwight Waldo

(D) Peter Drucker

Q.114. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them ?

(A) Rewards and sanctions

(B) Social disapproval

(C) Legitimacy

(D) Subordinate’s confidence in superior’s ability

Q.115. In explaining administrative decision- making Simon’s decision – theory focused on which one of the following ?

(A) The single best choice made by the decision- maker

(B) The limits of information availability in the organization

(C) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator

(D) Bounded rationality and satisficing

Q.116. While dealing with superior- subordinate communication, the theory of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following ?

(A) Emphasis on task directives

(B) Communication on organizational policy and procedures

(C) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates

(D) Superior’s managerial capacity

Q.117. The behavioural approach led to administrative research on which of the following ?

1. Motivation studies.

2. Decision making studies.

3. Organizational structures.

4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A)1 and 3 only

(B)1,2 and 3

(C)2,3 and 4

(D)1,2 and 4

Q.118. Consider the following statements-

According to Barnard , authority is accepted in an organization only when-

1.The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.

2.The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1nor 2

Q.119. Out of the following who has criticized bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behavior by learning from its errors” ?

(A) M. Crozier

(B) Frank Gillbreth

(C) Reinhard Bendix

(D) M.LCooke

Q.120. What was/ were the perspective(s) of Weber’s analysis of bureaucracy ?

1. Economic perspective

2. Political perspective

3.Sociological perspective

4. Cultural Perspective

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A)2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

(C)4 only
(D) 3 only

Answers with Hints

1.(D) 2. (C)
3. (A) Rensis Likert has suggested four styles of leadership-
1. Exploitative-authoritative,
2. Benevolent authoritative,
3. Consultative.
4. Participative
4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A)
7. (B) The Bhore Committee was constituted in 1946.
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13.(C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) The concept of logical positivism emphasises on the factual and scientific study. Simon also considers administration as a science based on factual analysis, in which ethical values do not find a place.
22. (B) The chief characteristics of closed model of organization are task especialisation , emphasis on means formal responsibility. Hierarchical structures, emphasis on vertical interaction etc. The characteristics of an open model of organization are specialised knowledge contributing to common tasks emphasis on ends, flexible responsibility towards organizational problems all side interaction in the organization and emphasis on excellence of performance.
23. (B) 24. (D)
25. (B) According to the views of Weber the positions based on merit is the example of legal authority.
26.(C)
27. (A) There is a mistake in the question as two books (A) Human Organization and (C) ‘New patterns of Management are written by Rensis Likert. None of the books mentioned in the question is written by Henry Fayol . Yet the most appropriate answer is ‘A’
28. (B)
29. (A) According to Max Weber, there are three kinds of authority and legitimacy of rule in each authority is based on factors given below- 1. Traditional authority – Sanctity of tradition,
2. Charismatic authority – Charisma of leader, 3. Legal – Rational Authority – Legal sanction.
30. (C) Rational theory is the core feature of behavioural studies in public administration.
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34.(A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39.(C) 40.(C) 41.(A)
42. (A) In Herzberg’s Motivation theory , Hygiene factors are company policy and administration, supervisions, salary interpersonal relations and working conditions . Motivation factors are achievement , recognition, work itself , responsibility and advancement.
43. (A) The Leadership – participation model was given by Victor Broom and Philip Yetton (1937) . This model is also know as Decision – participation model, Normative model or Leadership decision theory.
44. (D) According to Article 258 , the President may, with the consent of the Governor of a state, entrust to that state government functions which fall under the executive domain of the union.
45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C)
48. (A) The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added 12th Schedule to the Constitution of India which mentions 18 subject coming under the jurisdiction of municipalities.
49. (B) 50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55.(B) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C) 61. (A).
62. (D) The new commission on Centre State relations was constituted in April, 2007.
63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66.(A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D)
70. (D) The scheme for strengthening of Revenue administration and updated of land records was started in 1987 by the Central Government.
71. (A) 72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (D)
78. (B) Rural Infrastructural Development Fund was established in the year 1995-96.
79. (C) 80.(C) 81. (C)
82. (C) Fayol has identified six types of activities of an industrial undertaking- (1) Technical activities (2) Commercial activities (3) Financial activities (4) Security activities (5) Accounting activities (6) Managerial activities.
83. (D) Infact decentralisation encourages competition and comparative standards of evaluation among several competing field units.
84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89.(A) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95.(B) 96.(B) 97. (C) 98.(C)
99. (A) The report of Whyatt Committee (1967) led the establishment of the office of parliamentary commissioner in England.
100. (B) 101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105.(C)
106. (A) The years of various committees is given below- Devis Committee, U.K , 1969 , Masterman Committee U.K 1948 , Second Hoover Committee , 1955 , USA, and Franks Committee , 1972 U.K.
107. (B) NABARD was set up in 1982 by an Act of Parliament with 50% share capital owned by both RBI and the Union Government each.
108. (A)
109. (A) The Executive Office of president of USA was established in 1939 by the then President F. Roosevelt by an executive order under the Reorganization Act of 1939.
110.(B) 111. (C) 112. (D) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115.(D) 116.(C) 117. (D) 118. (B) 119.(A) 120. (D).