MARKETING
1.The functions of distribution channel do not include….
(A) Gathering and providing market in formation
(B) Marketing research
(C) Assisting the consumer in understanding and using the goods
(D) Promoting the sales of goods
(E) None of these
2.Of the following characteristics ….is found only in some services like banking and not found in case of many services..
(A) Inseparability
(B) Variability
(C) Client relationship
(D) Perishability
(E) None of these
3.Distribution channels carry out the following functions except…
(A) Physical distribution
(B) Fixing the price
(C) Matching the offer
(D) Risk taking
(E) None of these
4.A direct marketing channel is also called as……level channel:
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) One (D) Zero
(E) None of these
5.Computerised banking services have helped in working around the followig characteristics….
(A) Perishability and client relationship
(B) Inseparability and client relationship
(C) Variability and perishability
(D) Inseparability and intangibility
(E) None of these
6.Of the following intermediaries,…….are not found working for banks:
(A) Direct sales agents
(B) Wholesellars
(C) Automobiles dealers
(D) Merchant establishments
(E) None of these
7.The following is not among the tasks performed under physical distribution …
(A) Storage of goods
(B) Taking orders
(C) Forecasting demand for product
(D) Servicing of the product
(E) None of these
8.The tools for communications with the customer are:
(A) Promotion mix
(B) Product and Price
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) (A) and other three elements of marketing mix
(E) None of these
9.Promotion seeks to influence the buyer in decision- marking through..
(A) Persuasion (B) Compulsion
(C) Reminding
(D) (A), (C) , information and reinforcement
(E) None of these
10.Promotion is an exercise of maintaining contact with the consumer at different levels so as to…
(A) Enhance customer relationship
(B) Lure the customer in to buying the products
(C) Prevent customer from being critical of thefirm
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
11.An advertisement is not for…
(A) Suggesting new uses of a product
(B) Telling about a new product
(C) Explaining how a product works
(D) Building brand preference
(E) None of these
12.Direct marketing does not cover…..
(A) Online marketing
(B) Public relations
(C) Personal selling
(D) Catalogue marketing
(E) None of these
13.Dollar Rupee Co-operative Bank with ten branches in Mumbai should not opt for ….. as medium for its advertisement campaign:
(A) Star Plus Channel on
(B) Munbai edition of Mid-Day eveninger
(C) Hoarding at Dadar in Mumbai
(D) Suburban train in Mumbai
(E) None of these
14.Personal selling is not an ideal medium of communication for…
(A) Core banking system
(B) Internet banking
(C) A product in decline stage
(D) Treasury- based investment product
(E) None of these
15.3Public relations element will not in clued…
(A) A report on the bank appearing in a periodical
(B) A programme of Lata Mangeskar sponsored by the bank
(C) An eye camp for cataract surgery sponsored by the bank
(D) A presentation made to the employees of Utpadansheel Udyog Ltd.
(E) None of these
16.Firms need to collect and analyse the data pertaining to marketing for….
(A) Projecting their organization as knowledge oriented
(B) Enabling the top management to keep control over the sales force
(C) Taking the required steps for effective marketing of their products
(D) For utilising their information technology capabilities
(E) None of these
17.An effective MIS fulfills these….
(A) Analysis of quantitative information
(B) Coordination among functional and specialists executives
(C) Limited to current scenario
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
18.The components of Marketing Information System do not include…
(A) Marketing Intelligence System
(B) Internal Records System
(C) Information technology System
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
19.The ultimate users of the Marketing Information System are:
(A) the customers of the firm
(B) the competitors of the firm
(C) the decision markers in the firm
(D) both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
20.Which of the following situation falls under the purview of Marketing Research System?
(A) Riddhi Vriddhi Bank wants to send Diwali greeting cards to all its fixed deposit account holders with deposits of Rs. 10,000 or more
(B) Money Honey Bank wants to have a profile of Kalahandi District to decide about opening a new branch there
(C) Get Rich Fast Bank wants a comparative business statistics with other 10 per level banks in the country
(D) Baroda branch of Prosperous Customer Bank is twelve-year –old and it recorded a compounded annual growth rate of 20% in deposits during the first ten years, which has been better than the industry average. However, during the last two years the branch has witnessed a significant decline in its deposits. Managing Director of the Bank desires of know the causes for this reversal in the business trend and suggestions for amelioration the situation.
(E) None of these
21.Which is the following is a part of the core concepts of marketing ?
(A) Needs, wants and demand
(B) Value, cost and demand
(C) Exchange , transactions and relationship
(D) All of these (E) None of these
22.Which of the following is not a part of the core concept of marketing?
(A) Needs, wants and demand
(B) Value, cost and satisfaction
(C) Transfers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
23.Marketing thinking starts with the fact of :
(A) Human needs area of business
(B) Basic functional area of business
(C) Earning profit
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
24.Wants become demand when supported by:
(A) Cost of the product
(B) Purchasing power
(C) Value of the product
(D) Price of the product
(E) None of these
25.Demand are wants for a specific products that are backed by :
(A) Ability to buy (B) Willingness to buy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
26.When an individual feels deprivation of some basic satisfaction, it is termed as :
(A) Want (B) Need
(C) Demand (D) Imagination
(E) None of these
27.Marketing emerges when people decide to satisfy needs and wants through ex-change . Exchange occurs through:
(A) Self production (B) Coercion
(C) Exchange (D) All of these
(E) None of these
28.For exchange to take place, which condition (s) must be satisfied :
(A) At least two parties
(B) All involved must have something that might be of value to the other party
(C) Each party is free to accept or reject the offer
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
29.The basic unit of exchange is called :
(A) Purchase
(B) Sale
(C) Transfer
(D) Transaction
(E) None of these
30.A ‘market’ from a ‘marketing perspective’ is a :
(A) Group of buyers and sellers negotiating and exchange
(B) Group of consumers willing and able to engage in exchange
(C) Group of producers, whole sellers and retailers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
31.Marketing management includes:
(A) Analysing
(B) Planning
(C) Implementing and control
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
32.Which is not a part of marketing management :
(A) Planning
(B) Analysing
(C) Raising funds
(D) Implementation and control
(E) None of these
33.Production concept holds that consumers will favour those products that are :
(A) Widely available
(B) Lower in cost
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Higher in Cost
(E) None of these
34.Managers of production- oriented organizations concentrate on achieving :
(A) High production efficiency
(B) Wide distribution coverage
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
35.Henry Ford pioneered in the early 1900s to expand the automobile market . He put all his talent into perfecting the mass production and to bring down the cost. This is most indicative of the …..concept :
(A) Production (B) Selling
(C) Marketing (D) Product
(E) None of these
36.Product concept holds that consumers will favour those products that offer :
(A) Quality
(B) Performance
(C) Innovative features
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
37.In marketing concept ,the achievement of organizational goal is accomplished through:
(A) Increasing sales
(B) Product innovation
(C) Customer satisfaction
(D) Promotional mix
(E) None of these
38.Which is not a part of selling concept :
(A) Customer if part alone will ordinarily not buy
(B) Aggressive selling and promotional efforts
(C) Focus on the needs of the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
39.Producers of ‘unsought goods’ normally employed the …..concept:
(A) Production (B) Product
(C) Selling (D) Marketing
(E) None of these
40‘Self want company make rather than what market wants’ is a ……concept :
(A) Product (B) Production
(C) Selling (D) Marketing
(E) None of these
41.Selling concept is best applicable to:
(A) Insurance (B) Incyclopedias
(C) Fund raisers (D) All of these
(E) None of these
42.The marketing concept holds that key to achieving organizational goals consist in
(A) Determining the need and wants of target market
(B) Delivering the desired satisfaction more effectively
(C) Effectively than competitors
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
43.Selling focuses on the needs of the ….; marketing on the needs of …..:
(A) Buyer, seller
(B) Seller, buyer
(C) Market, producer
(D) Producer ,seller
(E) None of these
44.Selling is pre occupied with the sellers need to convert his product into…; marketing with the idea of satisfying the needs of the ….:
(A) Cash , customer (B) Customer, cash
(C) Sale, producers
(D) Finished goods, customer
(E) None of these
45.Marketing concept rests on:
(A) Target market
(B) Customers needs
(C) Co- ordinated marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
46.Which is not a marketing concept:
(A) Meeting needs profitably
(B) Have the customer, not the product
(C) Find wants and fill them
(D) Producing efficiently
(E) None of these
47.Which statement reflects the marketing philosophy in a better way :
(A) Declining sales thus follow aggressive promotion policy
(B) Improve the quality of the product
(C) Motivating the sales force fo-increasing the sales volume
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
48.Internal marketing is the task of successfully:
(A) Hiring the employees
(B) Training the employees
(C) Motivating the employees
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
49.Successfully hiring, training and motivating able employees who want to serve the customers well is:
(A) Internal marketing
(B) Relationship marketing
(C) Product marketing
(D) Service marketing
(E) None of these
50.The controlling force in an organization under marketing concept should be :
(A) Producer (B) Customer
(C) Seller (D) Middleman
(E) None of these
51.Which of the following reflects the best societal concept:
(A) High quality material
(B) Low priced material
(C) Eco- friendly material
(D) Non-destroyable material
(E) None of these
52.Customer delivered value is the difference between :
(A) Total customer value and total customer cost
(B) Sale price and cost price
(C) Value and price
(D) Total customer desire and total customer demand
(E) None of these
53.Total customer value is :
(A) Price a customer pays for the product or service
(B) Bundle of benefits customer expects
(C) Cost of the product of service
(D) Marginal cost of the product or service
(E) None of these
54.Customer delivered value is maximised through:
(A) Lowering the price
(B) Improving the quality of the product
(C) Lowering monetary cost
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
55.A survey which ask you to indicate the extent of satisfaction of a three point scale i.e satisfied , indifferent or dissatisfied is…………..method of measuring satisfaction:
(A) Directly reported satisfaction
(B) Problem analysis
(C) Derived satisfaction
(D) Performance analysis
(E) None of these
56.A Survey which ask you how closely your music system lived up to your expectation is….. method of measuring satisfaction:
(A) Problem analysis
(B) Directly reported satisfaction
(C) Derived satisfaction
(D) Performance analysis
(E) None of these
57.A survey which ask you to indicate any problems you had with your new music system and give your suggestion for improvement is …… method of measuring satisfaction:
(A) Derived satisfaction
(B) Performance analysis
(C) Suggestion analysis
(D) Problem analysis
(E) None of these
58.Which of the following is not a primary activity in the value chain process:
(A) Procurement
(B) Operations
(C) Marketing and Sales
(D) Services
(E) None of these
59.The task of creating strong customer loyalty is called:
(A) Accountable marketing
(B) Total quality marketing
(C) Relationship marketing
(D) Direct marketing
(E) None of these
60.The sales person sells the product but does not contact the customers again is an example of ……. Marketing:
(A) Basic
(B) Reactive
(C) Accountable
(D) Proactive
(E) None of these
61.The sales person sells the product and encourages the customer to call if he/she has any complaint or quarry is an example of ……..marketing :
(A) Basic
(B) Reactive
(C) Proactive
(D) Accountable
(E) None of these
62.The Company’s sales person phones the customer from time to time with suggestions about improved product use are helpful in new products is an example of:
(A) Basic marketing
(B) Reactive marketing
(C) Proactive marketing
(D) Accountable marketing
(E) None of these
63.Which of the following is not a component of total quality marketing programme:
(A) Quality must be perceived by customers
(B) Quality is necessary but may not be sufficient
(C) Quality can always be improved]
(D) Quality drive can save a poor product
(E) None of these
64.In developing the marketing strategy for a business, all the following would be considered except:
(A) Interest of top management
(B) Industry position
(C) Objectives and opportunities
(D) Skills and resources
(E) None of these
65.Which of the following is very difficult to change:
(A) Company’s structure
(B) Company’s policies
(C) Company’s culture
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
66.Who stated “What is our business? Who is the customer ? What is value to the customer? What will our business be? What should our business be?
(A) Milton Kotler
(B) Georg H. Brown
(C) Philip Kotler
(D) Peter Drucker
(E) None of these
67.Which is not an element of company’s mission:
(A) Current preference of the owners and management
(B) Market environment
(C) Distinctive competencies
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
68.In marketing , SBU stands for :
(A) Strategic business unit
(B) Self business unit
(C) State business undertaking
(D) Small business unit
(E) None of these
69.Which of the following is product oriented definition :
(A) We sell hope
(B) We distribute information
(C) We make cosmetic
(D) We supply energy
(E) None of these
70.Which of the following is market oriented definition :
(A) We make air conditioner
(B) We supply energy
(C) We make copying equipment
(D) We make movies
(E) None of these
71.The growth share matrix developed by Bostan consulting group has…..on x-axis:
(A) Relative market share
(B) Maerket growth rate
(C) Growth rate of the economic
(D) Growth rate in market price
(E) None of these
72.Which of the following is appropriate for strong cash cows if they are to continue to yield a large positive cash flow:
(A) Hold (B) Maintain
(C) Harvest (D) Divest
(E) None of these
73.Which of the following is appropriate for dogs and quest marks that are dragging on the company’s profit:
(A) Hold (B) Maintain
(C) Harvest (D) Divest
(E) None of these
74.Harvesting is least appropriate for :
(A) Dogs
(B) Question marks
(C) Stars
(D) Cash cows
(E) None of these
75.Intensive growth opportunities means:
(A) To identify further opportunities to achieve growth with in the company’s current business
(B) To identify opportunities to build or acquire business that are related to company’s current business.
(C) To identify opportunities to add attractive business that are unrelated to the company’s business
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
76.Which of the following is not a part of intensive growth:
(A) Product development
(B) Market development
(C) Market penetration
(D) Horizontal integration
(E) None of these
77.Which is the following is a part of integrated growth:
(A) Forward integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Horizontal integration
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
78.Which is the following is a part of the diversification growth:
(A) Horizontal diversification
(B) Concentric diversification
(C) Conglomerate diversification
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
79.DCM manufactures cloth and also owns and operates retail outlets. DCM is engaged in:
(A) Horizontal integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Forward integration
(D) Diversifiction
(E) None of these
80.Tata group is engaged in different business activites like iron and steel, automobiles, software , telecommunication . It is a form of:
(A) Horizontal diversification
(B) Forward diversification
(C) Conglomerate diversification
(D) Backward diversification
(E) None of these
81. Brooke Bond is producing and selling tea and has its own tea estates is an examples of:
(A) Forward integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Horizontal integration
(D) Conglomerate
(E) None of these
82. If a company seeks new product that have technological/or market synergies with its existing product lines , even though the product may appeal to a new target market is an example of…. diversification strategy.
(A) Concentric
(B) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(D) Conglomerated
(E) None of these
83. If a company searches for new technologically unrelated products that appeal to its current customers is an example of ….. diversification strategy.
(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical
(C) Concentric (D) Conglomerate
(E) None of these
84. If a company seeks new business that has no relationship of its current technology, product or market is a form of …… diversification.
(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical
(C) Concentric (D) Conglomerate
(E) None of these
85. An ideal business is ….. in major opportunities and …… in major threats:
(A) Low, high (B) High , low
(C) High , high (D) High, low
(E) None of these
86. Speculative business is … in opportunities and … in threats:
(A) Low. low (B) Low, high
(C) High, high (D) High. low
(E) None of these
87. Mature business is… in opportunities and … in threats:
(A) Low. low (B) Low, high
(C) High, low (D) High. high
(E) None of these
88. A troubled business is …….. in opportunities and ….in threats
(A) Low, high (B) High , low
(C) High , high (D) Low, low
(E) None of these
89. Michael Poters generic strategy formulated include all the following except:
(A) Overalll cost leadership
(B) Quality
(C) Differentiation
(D) Focus
(E) None of these
90. Mc Knsey’s 7-S framework, include all the hardware, except:
(A) Structure (B) Strategy
(C) System (D) Skill
(E) None of these
91. Mc Knsey’s 7-S framework, include all the following software, except:
(A) Strategy (B) Skill
(C) Style (D) Shared value
(E) None of these
92. Which of the following is/ are value creation and delivery process developed by the Japanese :
(A) Zero customer feed back time
(B) Zero purchasing time
(C) Zero defects
(D) All of these (E) None of these
93. In marketing jargon, STP stands for :
(A) Segment target position
(B) Segment target plan
(C) Sales tax provision
(D) Segment trade profit
(E) None of these
94. Which of the following is a part of the micro environment :
(A) Economic (B) Social
(C) Political (D) Supplier
(E) None of there
94. Which of the following is a part of the macro environment :
(A) Supplier (B) Intermediaries
(C) Demography (D) Competition
(E) None of these
96. A company’s market environment consist of:
(A) Micro environment
(B) Macro environment
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Segregation
(E) None of these
97. Process of dividing the total market into smaller groups having homogeneity is called:
(A) Segregation (B) Recomposition
(C) Segmentation (D) Division
(E) None of these
98. The element that is not a part of company’s product decision is:
(A) Product features
(B) Packaging
(C) Branding
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
99. Robert Lauferborn suggested that the 4 Ps correspond to the customers’ 4 Cs. Find the correct match Product:
Product 1. Communication
Price 2. Convenience
Place 3. Cost of the customer
Promotion 4. Customers needs and wants
(A) 4,2,3,1 (B) 4,3,2,1
(C) 4,2,1,3, (D) 4,1,2,3
(F) None of these
100. To determine its strengths and weaknesses, manager might ask customers all of the following except;
(A) Was the quality except;
(B) Was the price reasonable?
(C) Have you heard the company slogan?
(D) None of these
101. the final step in marketing plan is:
(A) Goals and objectives
(B) Preparing projected profit and loss accounts
(C) Control
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
102. Managers scan the environment through :
(A) Undirected viewing
(B) Conditioned viewing
(C) Formal and informal search
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
103. Primary data is generally collected through:
(A) Survey (B) Experiment
(C) Observation (D) Census report
(E)None of these
104. Secondary data is collected through :
(A) Observation
(B) Survey
(C) Official record
(D) Experiment
(E) None of these
105. Casual research is :
(A) Together primary data to shed light on the real nature of the problem
(B) To ascertain certain magnitudes
(C) To find out cause and effect relationship
(D) To explore the gravity of the situation
(E) None of these
106. Generally the best research approach suited for descriptive research is :
(A) Observation
(B) Survey
(C) Cross sectional
(D) Experimental
(E) None of these
107. Generally speaking the best research approach for casual research is :
(A) Observation
(B) Survey
(C) Cross sectional
(D) Experimental
(E) None of these
108. Generally speaking the best research approach for exploratory research is ;
(A)Observation
(B)Survey
(C)Cross sectional
(D)Experimental
(E)None of these
109. A study to determine if advertising expenses increases by 10 per cent , the sales will increase by x per cent . It is a form of :
(A) Exploratory
(B) Descriptive
(C) Casual
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
110. In the marketing survey, the surveyor asks the questions; Do you like our product? Yes / No It is a form of :
(A) Dichotomous
(B) Likert scale
(C) Semantic differential
(D) Rating scale
(E) None of these
111. The question small airlines generally give better service than large one :
Strongly disagree
Disagree
Neither agree nor disagree
Agree
Strongly agree
It is a form of :
(A) Multiple choice
(B) Likert scale
(C) Semantic differential
(D) Rating scale
(E) None of these
112. A statement with which the respondent shows the amount of agreement / disagreement is a :
(A) Likert scale
(B) Semantic differential
(C) Rating scale
(D) Multiple choice
(E) None of these
113. A scale connecting two bio-pollar words, where the respondent selects the point that represents his or her opinion is a :
(A) Likert scale
(B) Semantic differential
(C) Rating scale
(D) Multiple choice
(E) None of these
114. A scale that rates some attribute from poor to excellent is a :
(A) Likert scale
(B) Semantic diferential
(C) Rating scale
(D) Multiple choice
(E) None of these
115. A picture is presented and a respondent is asked to make up a story to about what they think is happening or may happen in think is happening or may happen in the picture is a :
(A) Word association test
(B) Story completion test
(C) Picture completion test
(D) Thematic appreciation test
(E) None of these
116. An incomplete story is presented and respondents are asked to complete it. It is a :
(A) Thematic appreciation test
(B) Picture completion test
(C) Story completion test
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
117. Which is not a probability sampling:
(A) Simple random sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Area sampling
(E) None of these
118. Which of the following is not a non probability sampling :
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Cluster sampling
(E) None of these
119. When the population is divided into mutually exclusive groups and random samples are drawn from each group. It is called :
(A) Stratified sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Area sampling
(D) Multi- stage sampling
(E) None of these
120. When the population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as blocks and the researcher draws a sample from the group or block is called :
(A) Area sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Stratified sampling
(E) None of these
121. When time factors is most important, then the best contact method with the respondet is:
(A) Personal intervies
(B) Mailed questionnaire
(C) Telephone interviewing
(D) Schedule
(E) None of these
122. The contract method, which minimizes the interview’s bais is a :
(A) Telephone interview
(B) Mailed questionnaire
(C) Personal interview
(D) Schedule
(E) None of these]
123. XYZ Co. wanted to know how their sales are influenced by price , advertising etc. The best statistical tool is:
(A) Correlation analysis
(B) Simple regression analysis
(C) Multiple regression analysis
(D) Discriminate analysis
(E) None of these
124. When the company wants to distinguish its products into good quality and poor quality on the basis of various features of the product. The best analysis is :
(A) Regression analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Discriminant analysis
(D) F- Test
(E) None of these
125. Which of the following is a parametric test :
(A) sign test (B) Median test
(C) Run test (D) T- test
(E)None of these
126. Which of the following is a non-parametric test:
(A) Z-test (B) T- test
(C) F- test (D) X2-test
(E) None of these
127. Find odd man out :
(A) Discriminant analysis
(B) Mailed questionnaire ,survey
(C) Conjoint analysis
(D) Cluster analysis
(E) None of these
128. A direction is sequence of events which have some momentum and disability is :
(A) Fad
(B) Trend
(C) Mega- trend
(D) Fashion
(E) None of these
129. A fad is :
(A) Unpredictable
(B) Short lived
(C) Without social, economic , political significance
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
130. A trend, according to futurist ‘Faith Popcorn’ has:
(A) Longevity
(B) Observable across several market areas and consumer activities
(C) Consistent with other significant indicators
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
131. Mashroom haircut is an example of
(A) Fad (B) Trend
(C) Mega-trend (D) Fashion
(E) None of these
132. Within the rapidly changing global picture, the firm must monitor:
(A) Demographic variables
(B) Technological
(C) Political
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
133. Which of the following is not a determinant of purchasing power:
(A) Current income
(B) Credit availability
(C) Debt
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
134. Starting point for understanding the buyer is:
(A) Stimulus
(B) Psychology
(C) Stimulus response
(D) Purchasing power
(E) None of these
135. All the groups that have a direct (face to face) or indirect influence on the persons attitudes or behaivour is:
(A)Reference group
(B) Aspirational group
(C) Disassociate group
(D) Disadvantage group
(E) None of these
136. Group to which a person would like to beglong is called:
(A)Reference group
(B) Disadvantage group
(C) Disassociate group
(D) Aspirational group
(E) None of these
137. Primary group includes:
(A) Family (B) Friend
(C) Neighbourers (D) All of these
(E) None of these
138. In marketing ‘VALS’ stands for:
(A) Values of life style
(B) Value and luxuries
(C) Variation for living standard
(D) Vital aids for living standard
(E) None of these
139. Which of the following slogan most closely reflects self actualization motive:
(A) Thanda mat lab : Coca- Cola
(B) Yehi hai right choice baby : Pepsi
(C) Kar Lo Dunia Muthi Main : Reliance
(D) We serve the nation : Army
(E) None of these
140. Who stated the real psychological forces shaping people behaviour are largely unconscious :
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Abreham Maslow
(C) Frederick Herzberg
(D) Eric Burne
(E) None of these
141. Ad. Repetition creates…….. rather than …..
(A) Brand familiarity, brand loyalty
(B) Brand loyalty, brand convection
(C) Brand convection, brand familiarity
(D) Brand familiarity , brand convection
(E) None of these
142. Mr. X is doing research on buying decision process. He asked the marketing manager, how people should buy a car. This is an example of …….method of researching consumer behaviour.
(A) Introspective (B) Retrospective
(C) Prospective (D) Prescriptive
(E) None of these
143. Mass media usually has greatest impact at the ……… state of new task buying .
(A) Awareness (B) Interest
(C) Trial (D) Adoption.
(E) None of these
144. Sales force usually have their greatest impact at the ………stage of new task buyer.
(A) Awareness (B) Interest
(C) Trial (D) Adoption.
(E) None of these
145. Companies need to know all of the following about their competitors except:
(A) What are their objectives
(B) What are their Strategies]
(C) What are their legal advisors
(D) What are their strengths and weaknesses.
(E) None of these
146. ……….. competitors offer new or other ways to satisfy the same needs:
(A) Latent (B) Hidden
(C) Aggressive (D) Covert.
(E) None of these
147. Eastman Kodak, in its film business, has been worrying about the growing competition from Fuji, the Japanese film maker . But Kodak faces a much greater threat from the recent innovation of the filmless camera This is …….a competition:
(A) Hidden (B) Covert
(C) Latent (D) All of these
(E) None of these
148. Unilever and other Detergent manufacturers are nervous about research being done on an ultra-sonic washing machine. If perfected, this machine would wash clothes in water without any detergent. It is a………form of competition:
(A) Monopoly (B) Hidden
(C) Covert (D) Latent
(E) None of these
149. Sony innovated the walkman and started as a monopolist , but soon many other companies entered and offered different version of the product, leading to on….. competitive structure:
(A) Perfect (B) Monopolistically
(C) Oligopoly (D) Duopoly.
(E) None of these
150. One way to find the competitive products is through:
(A) Elasticity of demand
(B) Price elasticity of demand
(C) Cross elasticity of demand
(D) Market elasticity of demand
(E) None of these
151. A few companies producing partially differentiated products on the basis of lies of quality, features , styling or services . Each competitor may seek leadership along one of their major attributes and charge a price premium for that attribute . It is a ……competition.
(A) Monpolistic
(B) Pure oligopoly
(C) Differentiated oligopoly
(D) Pure competition
(E) None of these
152. A……….competitive industry consists of many competitors able to differentiate their offers in whole or part. Many of the competitors focus or market segment where they can meet customers need in a superior way and command a price premium.
(A) Perfect (B) Pure
(C) Monopolistic (D) Oligopoly
(E) None of these
153. There are more than 200 companies producing biscuits in a country. Some of them heavily advertise to psychologically differentiate their band in the minds of consumers. This is an example of …….
(A) Pure competition.
(B) Monopolistic competition
(C) Pure oligopoly
(D) Monopoly
(E) None of these
154. If TELCO starts fabricating bus and trucks bodies, then it is a:
(A) Horizontal integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Forward integration
(D) Vertical integration
(E) None of these
155. The percentage of customers who named the competitor in responding to the statement “Name the first automobile company that come to your mind in car manufacturing” It is a measure of customers…..
(A) Share of market
(B) Share of mind
(C) Share of heart
(D) Share of recall
(E) None of these
156. The percentage of customers who named the competitor in responding to the statement. “Name the company from whom you would prefer to buy the product”. It is a ……… measure of customer.
(A) Share of mind (B) Share of market
(C) Share of heart (D) Share of recall.
(E) None of these
157. Some competitors do not react quickly are strongly to a given competitors mood. They may feel their customers are loyal It is a common reaction profile of….. competitors.
(A) Stochastic competitor
(B) Tiger competitor
(C) Selective competitor
(D) Laid back competitor
(E) None of these
158. A competitor who reacts only to certain types of attacks and not other is a ….. competitor:
(A) Tiger (B) Stochastic
(C) Selective (D) Laid back
(E) None of these
159. A competitor which reacts in unpredictable ways is a … competitor:
(A) Tiger (B) Stochastic
(C) Selective (D) Laid back
(E) None of these
160. Which department of a company is responsible for demand forecasting of sales:
(A) Production (B) Accounting
(C) Finance (D) Marketing
(E) None of these
161. If a house construction company surveyed a sample of respondents to determine, what fraction would be interested in buying house , the resulting percent age would define the …. Market.
(A) Avilable (B) Existing
(C) Potential (D) Actual
(E) None of these
162. The available market is the set of customers who have:
(A) Interest
(B) Income
(C) Access to a particular market offer
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
163. The served market and target market are:
(A) Synonymous
(B) Autonomous
(C) Different
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
164. The total volume that would be bought by a defined customer group in a defined geographical area in a defined time period , in a define market environment under a defined market programme is :
(A) Company sales
(B) Market supply
(C) Market demand
(D) Market forecast
(E) None of these
165. Suppose the population of a country is 20 cores and 20% of the masses consume jam. Per capita consumption is 250 gms per month. The price of the jam is Rs. 80 per kg. The market potential for jam per annum will be:
(A) Rs. 12 crore
(B) Rs. 80 crore
(C) Rs. 960 crore
(D) Rs. 2880 crore
(E) None of these
166. Total market potential is expressed as:
(A) Q=npq (B) Q= np/q
(C) Q= pq/n (D) Q= np
(E) None of these
Where Q= Total market potential n= Number of buyers in a specific product market under the given assumption
P= Price of an average unit
Q= Quality purchased by an average buyer.
167. The difference between market minimum and the market potential showed the overall:
(A) Market elastic of demand
(B) Marketing sensitivity of demand
(C) Market income elasticity of demand
(D) Market cross elasticity of demand
(E) None of these
168. Beyond a certain level marketing expenditure does not help in stimulating further demand. The upper limit to market demand is:
(A) Market potential
(B) Available market
(C) Market scope
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
169. When the seller engages in the mass production ,mass distribution and mass promotion of one product for all buyers is called:
(A) Target marketing
(B) Product marketing
(C) Popular marketing
(D) Mass marketing
(E) None of these
170. Soft-drink giant, Coca- Cola is a best example fo:
(A) Mass marketing
(B) Product variety marketing
(C) Target marketing
(D) Customer-friendly marketing
(E) None of these
171. The seller produces several products that exhibit different features, styles, quantities, sizes etc. They are designed of offer variety to buyers, rather than to appeal to different market segment is:
(A)Mass marketing
(B)Product variety marketing
(C) Target marketing
(D) All of these
(D) None of these
172. Maruti Udyog Ltd. (MUL) is providing to a particular segment variety of models like standard 800, 800 Ex. alto etc. This is an example of…
(A) Mass marketing
(B) Customer marketing
(C) Product variety marketing
(D) Target marketing
(E) None of these
173. When the seller distinguishes the major market segment, targets one or more of these segment and develops products and marketing programme tailored to each segment is called.:
(A) Mass marketing
(B) Product variety marketing
(C) Target marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
174. Market……are large identifiable groups within the market:
(A) Sub groups
(B) Segments
(C) Portions
(D) Offshoots
(E) None of these
175. The variables used to segment the market is/are:
(A) Purchasing power
(B) Geographical location
(C) Buying attitudes
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
176. Hindustan Lever Ltd. Who is manufacturing variety of toilet soaps is probably segmenting the market on the basis of:
(A) Geographical location
(B) Buying attitudes
(C) Income of the customers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
177. Consumers who show no loyalty to any brand are called:
(A) Shifting loyal (B) Split loyal
(C) Switchers (D) All of these
(E) None of these
178. Consumers who are loyal to two or three brands are called:
(A) Split loyal
(B) Shifting loyal
(C) Switchers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
179. Consumes who shift from favouring one brand to another are termed as:
(A) Split loyal
(B) Shifting loyal
(C) Switchers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
180. The requirements for effective segmentation should have all the following except:
(A) Measurable (B) Substantial
(C) Accessible (D) Rationality
(E) None of these
181. The firm might ignore market segment differences and go after the whole market, with one market offer. It is called:
(A) Differentiated marketing
(B) Undifferentiated marketing
(C) Cyber marketing
(D) Direct marketing
(E) None of these
182. An example of undifferentiated marketing is observable in :
(A) Hindustan Lever Limited
(B) Maruti Udyog Limited
(C) Coco- Cola Company
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
183. When a firm operates in several market segments and designs different programmer for each segment. It is called:
(A) Cyber marketing
(B) Direct marketing
(C) Indifferentiated marketing
(D) Differentiated marketing
(E) None of these
184. Maruti Udyog Ltd. manufactures cars for every purse, purpose and personality . It is an example of
(A) Cyber marketing
(B) Direct marketing
(C) Undifferentiated marketing
(D) Differentiated marketing
(E) None of these
185. The major benefit of an undifferentiated marketing is:
(A) Cost economics
(B) Less competition
(C) Greater profit
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
186. New Products that create an entirely new market is called:
(A) New product line
(B) Repositioning
(C) New to the world products
(D) Additions to the existing product line
(E) None of these
187. Existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments is called:
(A) New product lines
(B) Additions to existing product line
(C) Repositioning
(D) Improvement in existing product line
(E) None of these
188. The most sophisticated tool for managing the innovation process is the …..
(A) Check point (B) Stage gate system
(C) Mill stone (D) Key note
(E) None of these
189. The creative technique that begins with a very broad problem definition and eventually works down to a specific problem needing a solution is called:
(A) Brain storming
(B) Morphological analysis
(C) Synectics (D) Attribute listing
(E) None of these
190. Brain storming technique was developed by :
(A) Willing J.J.Gordan
(B) Segment Freaud
(C) Oliver Sheldon
(D) Alex Osborn
(E) None of these
191. The first idea pruning stage is called:
(A) Evaluting (B) Analysis
(C) Screening (D) Generating
(E) None of these
192. In screening ideas, company must avoid …. errors:
(A) Drop error (B) Go error
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Growth error
(E) None of these
193. Which of the following is the most expensive stage in the new product development process:
(A) Concept testing
(B) Product development
(C) Market testing
(D) Commercialization
(E) None of these
194. Adopters of new products move hrough the following five stages . Find their correct sequence:
(A) Awareness , interest, evaluation, trial adoption
(B) Interest, awareness, trial , evaluation, adoption
(C) Trial awareness , interest, adoption, evaluation
(D) Trial , interest, awareness, evaluation , adoption
(E) None of these
195. People differ markedly in their readiness to try new product. The degree to which an individual is relatively earlier in adopting new ideas than the other members of his social system are called:
(A) Early adopters (B) Early majority
(C) Innovators (D) Laggards
(E) None of these
196. ………play a major role in the adoption of new products:
(A) Personal products
(B) Personal influence
(C) Relatives
(D) Friends
(E) None of these
197. The parent concept theory of product life cycle is :
(A) Demand life cycle
(B) Technology life cycle
(C) Demand / Technology life cycle
(D) Nature of product
(E) None of these
198. The correct sequence in product life cycle are:
(A) Growth, introduction, maturity, declined .
(B) Introduction, maturity, growth, decline .
(C) Growth, maturity, introduction, decline,
(D)Introduction, growth, maturity, decline,
(E) None of these,
199. Mobile phones in India are in the …………stage of product life cycle:
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Decline
(E) None of these
200.Manual typewriters are in the ………„.stage of product life cycle:
(A) Introduction
(B) Maturity
(C) Growth
(D) Decline
(E) None of these
201. All of the following are stages in demand life cycle except:
(A) Accelerating growth
(B) Maturity
(C) Constant growth
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
202. Profits improve substantially during the…………stage of product life cycle:
(A) Introduction (B) Growth
(C) Maturity (D) Decline
(E) None of these
203. Life cycle may tale…………….of the following shapes:
(A) ‘S’ shaped (B) Cycle-recycle
(C) Scalloped (D) All of these
(E) None of these
204. Rapid slimming strategy consist of launching the new product at a……………price and a…………promotion level:
(A) Low, low (B) Low, high
(C) High, low (D) High, high
(E) None of these
205. Slow slimming strategy consist of launching the new product at a…………….price and………….promotion:
(A) High, low (B) Low, high
(C) High, high (D) Low, low
(E) None of these
206. When the market is limited in size; most of the market is aware of the product; buyers are willing to pay a high price; and potential competition is not eminent. In this situation the best strategy is:
(A) Rapid skimming
(B) Slow skimming
(C) Rapid penetration
(D) Slow penetration
(E) None of these
207. Rapid penetration strategy consist of launching of product at a ….. price and spending … on promotion:
(A) Low, heavily (B) Low, low
(C) High, heavily (D) High, low
(E) None of these
208. When the market is large , the market is unaware of the product; most buyers are price sensitive , there is strong potential competition, and the Company’s unit manufacturing cost falls with level production. The best strategy is:
(A) Rapid skimming
(B) Slow skimming
(C) Rapid penetration
(D) Slow penetration
(E) None of these
209. Slow penetration strategy cosist of launching the new product at a …. Price and …level of promotion:
(A) High, low
(B) Low, high
(C) Low, low
(D) High, high
(E) None of these
210. Promotional expenditures to sales ratio is generally high at…. Stage of product life cycle:
(A) Growth (B) Introduction
(C) Maturity (D) Decline
(E) None of these
211. Assume the market is large; highly aware of a new product; price sensitive and there is some potential competition. The best strategy will be:
(A) Rapid skimming
(B) Slow skimming
(C) Rapid penetration
(D) Slow penetration
(E) None of these
212. Marketing strategy (s) in the growth stage include all of he following except:
(A) Improve product quality and add new features
(B) Add new models and flanker products
(C) Enters new market segments
(D) Product awareness advertising
(E) None of these
213. Best stage to introduce new product is……
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Decline
(E) None of these
214. Generaly the longest stage in product life cycle is……stage:
(A) Introduction (B) Growth
(C) Maturity (D) Decline
(E) None of these
215. Most producs are in the …..stage of product life cycle:
(A) Maturity (B) Decline
(C) Introduction (D)Growth
(E) None of these
216. The life cycle stage characterized by falling price , increased advertising decline profits and industry shake-up depicts….stage of product life cycle:
(A) Maturity (B) Growth
(C) Decline (D) Introduction
(E) None of these
217. Managers try to stimulate sales by modifying product characteristics at maturity stage. This is done through:
(A) Quality improvement
(B) Feature improvement
(C) Style improvement
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
218. Style improvement aims at increasing the …of the product:
(A) Aesthetic appeal
(B) Size
(C) Accessories
(D) Durability
(E) None of these
219. During the market emergence stage ,it is better for small films to pursue a …strategy:
(A) Single niche
(B) Multiple niche
(C) Mass marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
220. During the market emergence stage ,it is better for large films to pursue a …strategy:
(A)Single niche
(B)Multiple niche
(C)Mass marketing
(D)All of these
(E) None of these
221. The most constructive mechanism for defending market share is:
(A) Through continuous innovations
(B) Through vertical integration
(C) Through horizontal integration
(D) Through diagonal integration
(E) None of these
222. Market leader who engages in such practices as introducing new products reducing costs and improving customer services is trying to:
(A) Improve quality of the product
(B) Use pre-emptive defence
(C) Defend market charges
(D) Use counter defence
(E) None of these
223. A product is anything that can be offered to a market for attention , acquisition ,use or consumption that might satisfy…
(A) Will (B) Wants or needs
(C) Desire (D) Demand
(E) None of these
224. A….is a set of all products and items that a particular seller makes available to a buyer:
(A) Sales yield (B) Product yield
(C) Sales mix (D) Product mix
(E) None of these
225. a group of diverse, but related items that function in a compatible manner is called:
(A) Product style (B) Product mix
(C) Product system (D) Product variety
(E) None of these
226. Nikon company sells a basic 35mm camera along with an extensive set of lenses, filters and other accessories is an example of:
(A) Product style (B) Product system
(C) Product mix (D) product variety
(E) None of these
227. A Company’s product mix will have a :
(A) Length
(B) Width
(C) Depth and consistency
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
228. Hindustan Liver Ltd. Manufactures toilet, soaps like Lifebuoy, Lux etc. taken together these brands of toilet soaps constitute a:
(A) Product line (B) Product mix
(C) Product class (D) Product variety
(E) None of these
229. A group a products that are closely related because they perform a similar function, are sold to the same customers group , are marketed through the same channels or make open particulars price range is called:
(A) Product system (B) product variety
(C) Product mix (D) Product line
(E) None of these
230. The number of different lines offered by a company is termed as:
(A) Length (B) Width
(C) Depth (D) Breadth
(E) None of these
231. The ….of the product mix refers of the total number of items in the mix:
(A) Length (B) Width
(C) Depth (D) Breadth
(E) None of these
Answers-
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.A 11.C 12.B13.A 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.D 18.C 19.C 20.D 21.D 22.C 23.A 24.B
25.C 26.B 27.D 28.D 29.D 30.B 31.D 32.C 33.C 34.C 35.A 36.D37.C 38.C 39.C 40.C 41.D 42.D 43.B 44.A 45.D 46.D 47.E 48.D
49.A 50.B 51.C 52.A 53.B 54.D 55.A 56.C 57.D 58.A 59.C 60.A61.B 62.C 63.D 64.A 65.C 66.D 67.E 68.A 69.C 70.B 71.A 72.A 73.D 74.C 75.A 76.D 77.D 78.E 79.C 80.C 81.B 82.A 83.A 84.D
85.B 86.C 87.A 88.A 89.B 90.D 91.A 92.D 93.A 94.D 95.C 96.C 97.C 98.E 99.B 100.C 101.C 102.D 103.A 104.C 105.C 106.B 107.D 108.A 109.C 110.A 111.B 112.A 113.B 114.C 115.D 116.C 117.C 118.D 119.A 120.C 121.C 122.B 123.C 124.C 125.D 126.D 127.B 128.B 129.D 130.D 131.A 132.D
133.E 134.C 135.A 136.D 137.D 138.A 139.D 140.A 141.D 142.D 143.A 144.B 145.C 146.A 147.C 148.D 149.B 150.C 151C. 152.C 153.B 154.C 155.D 156.C 157.D 158.C 159.B 160.D 161.C 162.D 163.A 164.C 165.C 166.A 167.B 168.A 169.D 170.A 171.B 172.C 173.C 174.B 175.D 176.C 177.C 178.A 179.B 180.D 181.B 182.C 183.D 184.D 185.A 186.C 187.C 188.B 189.C 190.D 191.C 192.C
193.D 194.A 195.C 196.B 197.C 198.D 199.B 200.D 201.C 202.B 203.D 204.D 205.A 206.B 207.A 208.C 209.C 210.B 211.D 212.D 213.C 214.C 215.A 216.A 217.D 218.A 219.A 220.C 221.A 222.C 223.B 224.D 225.C 226.B 227.D 228.A 229.D 230.B 231.A
Marketing Related Questions for Bank Exam
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