L.I.C. Assistant Recruitment Test Previous year

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English Language :Solved Model Paper
Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Off the coast near Jeddah about six years ago I slipped a pair of flippers onto my feet, put on a face mask and gingerly poked my head beneath the placid surface of the Red Sea. I am not sure, now, exactly what I saw in that first glimpse; shafts of sunlight, probably, slanting off through clear blue water; a coral reef of fantastic beauty and, no doubt, many fish. But I do recall that by the time I surfaced I had already developed a need to return to that incredibly lovely world below. So I did. Indeed, it would not be much of an exaggeration to say that except for such periods as were necessary to earn a living, I have rarely been anywhere else. Diving became a passion and then a way of life—one, as you will gather, I totally endorse.

For the first year after that initial experience I amused myself by hunting fish with a spear gun. It was not at all difficult. Fish are so abundant there that divers do not need to use tanks to get down to where the fish are; they find them near the surface. Furthermore, the water of the Red Sea, like the Caribbean, the South Seas and parts of the Indian Ocean, is so transparent that you can see upto 150 feet away. Thus, all you really need are a mask, a snorkel tube to breathe through, flippers and a spear gun.

Hunting, however, began to pall on me. I began to wonder if it wouldn’t be more interesting—and more sporting—to photograph some of these magnificent creatures rather than kill them. It was certainly an ideal place for underwater photography. In addition to hundreds of species of fish the Red Sea coast offers thousands of miles of what they call ‘fringing reefs’—great barriers of coral 10 to 200 miles wide that wind along the African shore from Egypt to Djibouti and down the Asian shore from Aqaba to the Babal-Mandab at the gate of the Indian Ocean. Although no more than the accumulation of billions of coral polyps—minute creatures that produce a calcareous deposit—the reefs have grown to fantastic sizes, the largest being the 1,200 mile-long Great Barrier Reef in Australia.

1. In what way is the Red Sea SIMILAR to the Caribbean Sea, the South Seas, etc.
(1) Variety of Fish
(2) Fantastic Reefs
(3) Clear and transparent water
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) All the three
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following changes occurred in the author after the initial period of a year or so ?
(1) He got fed up with hunting
(2) He struck with the idea of shooting the fish with a camera rather than by spear gun
(3) Hunting became more interesting and sporting
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
(E) All the three

3. Fishing in the Red Sea off the coast near Jeddah was—
(A) Difficult because the water was transparent
(B) Risky because tanks are needed to spot the fish
(C) Easy because the fish are clearly visible near the surface itself
(D) Cumbersome because of the tools like mask, snorkel tube, flippers, etc.
(E) More difficult than at the Caribbean Sea, the South Sea and the Indian Ocean

4. What are ‘fringing reefs’ ?
(A) Calcareous deposit formation
(B) Collection of fish
(C) Sea-food accumulation
(D) Collection of minute creatures other than fish
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 5 to 7) Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

5. GINGERLY
(A) Cautiously
(B) Recklessly
(C) Clearly
(D) Purposely
(E) Unintentionally

6. MAGNIFICENT
(A) Delicate
(B) Fragile
(C) Obvious
(D) Powerful
(E) Splendid

7. TRANSPARENT
(A) Opaque
(B) Glowing
(C) Dependable
(D) Visible
(E) Dark

Directions—(Q. 8 to 10) Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

8. RECALL
(A) Call up
(B) Recollect
(C) Forget
(D) Invite
(E) Send back

9. MINUTE
(A) Enormous
(B) Tiny
(C) Small
(D) Heavy
(E) Delay

10. FANTASTIC
(A) Incredible
(B) Plausible
(C) Unforgettable
(D) Imaginary
(E) Realistic

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each question a sentence is given with a part printed in bold. That part may contain a grammatical error. Replace that part with the four choices given (A), (B), (C) and (D). If the sentence is correct and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

11. In quick time she got acquainted with the new environment.
(A) In enough time
(B) In small time
(C) On time only
(D) In no time
(E) No correction required

12. The meeting was postponed due to lack of quorum.
(A) Due
(B) Because of
(C) For
(D) Against the
(E) No correction required

13. It was quite clear that the athlete can be able to improve upon his own record.
(A) Will be able to
(B) Should be able
(C) Would be able
(D) Be able
(E) No correction required

14. He has not written any book since his mother had died.
(A) Died
(B) Have died
(C) Has died
(D) Was dead
(E) No correction required

15. It was too cold to go out last evening, so we all stayed at home.
(A) Too cold for going
(B) Very cold to go
(C) Extremely cold for go
(D) So cold that to go
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

16. Since the online education system (A) / has been poorly designed there (B) / are not many
institute (C) / that offer this facility.(D) No error (E)

17. Unless the new resolution is (A) / completely reviewed it (B) / will cause a great deal of (C) / trouble for new employees. (D) No error (E)

18. After careful scrutiny of the report (A) / variety mistakes that had been (B) / made by the research (C) / department were found. (D) No error (E)

19. His industrious nature (A) /and calm temperament (B) / have endeared him (C)/ to his colleagues and one’s superiors. (D) No error (E)

20. The celebrities that organized (A)/the marathon were aiming (B)/ to create an awareness (C)/ about the treatment of diabetes. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 21 to 23) Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

21. Incurred
(A) collected
(B) included
(C) spent
(D) experienced
(E) adjusted

22. Prevailing
(A) popular
(B) implemented
(C) existing
(D) persuading
(E) winning

23. Hurdles
(A) bars
(B) defects
(C) rejections
(D) protests
(E) obstacles

Directions—(Q. 24 and 25) Choose the word/phrase which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

24. Vital
(A) practical
(B) voluntary
(C) negative
(D) worthless
(E) minimum

25. Flourishing
(A) drooping
(B) declining
(C) fluctuating
(D) opposing
(E) lacking

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each sentence below, one word has been printed in bold. Below the sentence five words are suggested, one of which can replace the word printed in bold without changing the meaning of the sentence. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

26. The professor requested the Dean to visit his house.
(A) get in
(B) welcome
(C) see
(D) call on
(E) call at

27. She knew that he will not be able to slip past the watchful custom officials.
(A) fall
(B) run
(C) hide
(D) chit
(E) escape

28. At night Romesh complained of severe pain in his stomach.
(A) serious
(B) deep
(C) bad
(D) biting
(E) intense

29. Shivaji always excelled in the use of the sword.
(A) surpassed
(B) speeded
(C) ahead
(D) skilled
(E) defeated

30. You must stay with your son when he is ill.
(A) reside
(B) remain
(C) stop
(D) occupy
(E) rest

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question below, a sentence is given with a part of it printed in bold type. That part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold to correct the error, if there is any, and to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required mark (E) as the answer.

31. Fishing and swimming are two different activities, independence of one another.
(A) independent of the other
(B) independence of the other
(C) independent of each other
(D) interdependence on each other
(E) No correction required

32. An early action on our suggestion, preferably before the elections are announced, will be appreciative.
(A) would be appreciate
(B) would have been appreciate
(C) would have been appreciated
(D) will be appreciated
(E) No correction required

33. He is the man whose advice is difficult in following.
(A) advice is not easy in following
(B) advice is difficult to follow
(C) advice has difficult to follow
(D) advice has difficulty to follow
(E) No correction required

34. He told me that he only had a little money.
(A) tells me that he only has a little
(B) told me that only he has a little
(C) only told me that he has little
(D) told me that he had only a little
(E) No correction required

35. You must ensure that I get my cheque encash before Saturday.
(A) my cheque cashed
(B) cash my cheque
(C) my cheque cash
(D) encash my cheque
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

36. He tends to ………… to any suggestion I make in meetings.
(A) differ
(B) agree
(C) accept
(D) act
(E) cooperate

37. We were shocked by the young man’s…………for money.
(A) greed
(B) acumen
(C) versatility
(D) projection
(E) indifference

38. Let us cultivate a strong will, a …………mental desire and determination to achieve our ideals.
(A) tall
(B) sure
(C) sardonic
(D) keen
(E) cutting

39. He ………… children to open their eyes and ears to the beauty of life.
(A) admonished
(B) promised
(C) exhorted
(D) complemented
(E) reprimanded

40. We must work hard towards ………… of the underprivileged people of our country.
(A) proliferation
(B) emancipation
(C) contribution
(D) association
(E) unification

Answers
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (E) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (E) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)

Railway Recruitment Board Solved Paper 2008

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Q.1. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it
(a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal
(c) Bends away from normal (d) None of these
Q.2.Who is the author of "Anandmath" ?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule
Q.3. Thimpu is the capital of -
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan
(c) Thailand (d) Myanmar
Q.4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is
(a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds
(c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds
Q.5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is
(a) Helium (b) Uranium
(c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen
Q.6. The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is
(a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec.
(c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these
Q.7. In diesel engine, ignition is caused by
(a) Spark (b) Automatic starter
(c) Compression (d) Friction
Q.8. The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by
(a) Max Plank (b) Einstein
(c) Newton (d) Hertz
Q.9. The filament of bulb is made of
(a) Tungsten (b) Iron
(c) Nichrome (d) Carbon
Q.10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by
(a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane
(c) TEL (d) Benzene
Q.11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state.
(a) CO (b) N2O
(c) NO (d) F2O
Q.12. Which of the following is used in photography?
(a) Silver Bromide (b) Sodium Bromide
(c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate
Q.13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Lead (d) Zinc
Q.14. Choose the wrong statement :
(a) Single magnetic poles can exist
(b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength
(c) Like poles repel each other
(d) None of these
Q.15. Laws of electrolysis are given by:
(a) Farady (b) Maxwell
(c) Lenz (d) Bohr
Q.16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out:
(a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current
(b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field
(c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field
(d) None of these
Q.17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is :
(a) 0 (b) 1.0
(c) 7.0 (d) 1.4
Q.18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is :
(a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum
(c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as :(a) Soda Ash (b) Lime
(c) Bleaching Powder (d) Plaster of Paris
Q.20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :

(a) Pyrex glass (b) Hard glass
(c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass
Q.21. The iron produced in blast furnace is :
(a) Pig iron (b) Wrought iron
(c) Stainless steel (d) Steel
Q.22. Formation is a 40% solution of :
(a) Methanol (b) Methenal
(c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these
Q.23. Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium :
(a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar
(c) Bauxite (d) Azurite
Q.24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are:
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes
(c) Allotropes (d) Hydrides of sulphur

Q.25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and :
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol
(c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid
Q.26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a :
(a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response
(c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response
Q.27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in :
(a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants
(c) Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants
Q.28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by:
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans
Q.29. Septic sore throat is caused by :
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans
Q.30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to :
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) Only ‘AB’
(c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ (d) All of these
Q.31. Cell activities are controlled by :
(a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
Q.32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens :
(a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva
(c) Ciliary body (d) Iris
Q.33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as :
(a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
(c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy
Q.34. Respiration is a :
(a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
Q.35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are :
(a) Neurons (b) Nephrons
(c) Medula (d) None of these
Q.36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human :
(a) Renin (b) Pepsin
(c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin
Q.37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is :
(a) Phloem (b) Xylem
(c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids
Q.38. ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of :
(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
(c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever
Q.39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through :
(a) Stomata (b) Lenticels
(c) Cuticle (d) All of these
Q.40. ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy :
(a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant
(c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these
Q.41. Pankaj Advani is associated with :
(a) Snooker (b) Golf
(c) Shooting (d) Archery
Q.42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city :
(a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem
(c) Mecca (d) Lhasa
Q.43. Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of :
(a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs. 5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs
Q.44. Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ :
(a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar
(c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
Q.45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site :
(a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar
(c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these
Q.46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant?
(a) Lead (b) Ebonite
(c) Charcoal (d) Lac
Q.47. Which of the following is a complementary colour?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
(c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta
Q.48. The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature.
(a) 60 m/sec. (b) 0.61 m/sec.
(c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec.
Q.49. Henry is a unit of
(a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field
(c) Inductance (d) Frequency
Q.50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is
(a) 28 km/min (b) 30 km/min
(c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min
Q.51. What is Hubble?
(a) Warship (b) Star
(c) Telescope (d) Missile
Q.52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits?
(a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid
Q.53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading?
(a) -400 (b) 00
(c) -574.250 (d) 2730
Q.54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form
(a) Graphite (b) Quartz
(c) Granite (d) Marble
Q.55. Rift valley is formed by
(a) Earthquake (b) Folding
(c) Faulting (d) All of these
Q.56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then
(a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts
(c) No ice melts (d) Temperature decreases
Q.57. Mettur Dam is built on the river
(a) Krishna (b) Cauvery
(c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi
Q.58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats
(c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal
Q.59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
Q.60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
Q.61. Pneumonia affects
(a) Lungs (b) Tongue
(c) Liver (d) Kidney
Q.62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is
(a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin
(c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin
Q.63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is
(a) 200m (b) 225m
(c) 245m (d) 250m
Q.64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be
(a) 20% (b) 60%
(c) 100% (d) 120%
Q.65. Atoms are electrically charged as
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral
Q.66. Ionic bond exists in
(a) Kcl (b) H2O
(c) NH3 (d) Cl3
Q.67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds?
(a) 2N (b) 4N
(c) 8N (d) 10N
Q.68. The river that does not form delta is
(a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti
(c) Krishna (d) Cauvery
Q.69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height.
(a) 13cm (b) 14cm
(c) 17cm (d) 26cm
Q.70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month?
(a) 3/27 (b) 3/12
(c) 12 (d) 1
Q.71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor
(c) Devika Rani (d) Kanan Devi
Q.72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 20
Q.73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati
Q.74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from
(a) America (b) Britain
(c) Australia (d) Ireland
Q.75. The electric supply in India was first started in
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling
Q.76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of
(a) Peace (b) Music and dance
(c) Science & technology (d) Fine arts
Q.77. Who discovered the solar system?
(a) Copernicus (b) Kepler
(c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton
Q.78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in
(a) 1901 (b) 1936
(c) 1957 (d) 1967
Q.79. In India, the second largest in
(a) Bengali (b) Urdu
(c) Telugu (d) Marathi
Q.80. The first Asian Games were held in
(a) Manila (b) Tokyo
(c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi
Q.81. The Islam was established in
(a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D.
(c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C.
Q.82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in
(a) Moscow (b) Paris
(c) New York (d) London
Q.83. The main factor of air pollution is
(a) Lead (b) Copper
(c) Zinc (d) Gold
Q.84. The bauxite ore is found in
(a) Musabani (b) Karnapura
(c) Koderma (d) Palamu
Q.85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in
(a) Trombay (b) Nangal
(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri
Q.86. Which of the following had strong navy?
(a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya
(c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta

Ans-(C)
Q.87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was
(a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal
(c) Samprati (d) Salishuk

Ans-(A)
Q.88. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper?
(a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image
(b) The central position of the image is absent
(c) There will be no effect
(d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness

Ans-(D)
Q.89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define
(a) Ampere (b) Coulomb
(c) Volt (d) Newton
ANS - (a)

Q.90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s)
(a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec.
(c) 14 m/sec. (d) 7 m/sec.
ANS - (c)
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d)
24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a)
35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a)
47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d)
83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) .