Indian Polity and Constitution of India Objective Question For Bank Exam

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1.Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?
It was not based on adult franchise.
It resulted from direct elections .
It was a multi-party body.
It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4
(E) 1 and 3
2.Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
(A) A written and rigid Constitution
(B) An independent Judiciary
(C) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(D) Distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(E) None of these
3.The parliamentary systems of India and of Britain differ on the account of :
(A) Bicameral legislature
(B)System of collective responsibility
(C) The system of judicial review
(D) The Prime Minister is separately elected by people
(F) None of these
4.Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
(A) Election of the President
(B) Representation of States in Parliament
(C) Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
(D) Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,3 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
(E) 2 and 4
Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a Convention?
(A) The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House
(B) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(C) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(D) It the event of both the President and the Vice President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure, the Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament will officiate as the President
(E) None of these
According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include:
(A) Chief Presidency Magistrate
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) Tribunal Judge
(D) Chief Judge of small court
(E) None of these
7. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee that drafted the Constitution?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C)Dr.RajendraPrasad(D) Dr .S. Radhakrishanan
(E) None of these
8. The Constitution of India was passed by the Constituent Assembly on ;
(A) 17th October , 1949
(B) 14th November, 1949
(C) 26th November , 1949
(D) 26th January, 1950
(E) None of these
9. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) G. V. Mavalanjar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(E) None of these
10. What is contained in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) Forms of oath or affirmation
(B) provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(C) Items on which Panchayats shall have powers and authority to function as institutions of self-government
(D) Items on which Municipalities shall have powers and authority of function as institutions of self-government
(E) None of these
11. The Constitution of India can be best described as:
(A) Purely federal (B) Purely unitary
(C) Partly federal and partly unitary
(D) All of the above is correct
(E) None of these
12. Which of the following fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
(A) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
(B) Freedom of movement, residence and profession
(C) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
(E) None of these
13. The Constitution empowers the President to nominate upto two members to the Lok Sabha from among the:
(A) Anglo- Indians
(B) Buddhists
(C) Indian Christians
(D) Parsees
(E) None of these
14. Which of the following emergencies had been declared the maximum number of times in India?
(A) Emergency under Article 352 due to external aggression
(B) Emergency under Article 352 due to internal disturbances
(C) Financial emergency under Article 360
(D) Emergency under Article 356 due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State
(E) None of these
15. India is considered a ‘Republic’ mainly because:
(A) The Head of the State is elected
(B) It gained Independence on Aug. 15,1947
(C) It has its own written Constitution
(D) It is having a parliamentary form of government
(E) None of these
16. One feature is common to the following bodies-Find it out. Supreme Court , Election Commission , UPSC, Office of CAG:
(A) They are advisory bodies
(B) They are extra – constitutional bodies
(C) They are controlled by legislature
(D) They are constitutional bodies
(E) None of these
17. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly?
(A) 1/6th of the members
(B) 1/3rd of the members
(C) 1/12th of the members
(D) 5/6th of the members
(E) None of these
18. Which one of the following statements about Panchayati Raj is correct?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report recommended a two-tier set –up
(B) Election to Panchayati Raj institution was made compulsory under the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India
(C) “Empowering people for prosperity” is the guiding principle of the Seventry-third Constitution Amendment
(D) The main difficulty faced by Panchayati Raj institutions is the inadequate participation by women and weaker sections
(E) None of these
19. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and a State in respect of a subject included in the Concurrent List in the Constitution India:
(A) The law of the State prevails
(B) The law of the Centre prevails
(C) The matter is resolved by the Supreme Court of India
(D) The law which had been passed first would prevail
(E) None of these
20. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Planning Commission in India?
1. It is an advisory body
2. It is statutory body
3. The Prime Minister is its ex-officio Chairman
4. It makes plans for the Union as well as the States
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
(E) None of these
21. Which one of the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only after the consent of the President /
(A) The Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) The Finance Bill
(C) The Bill for the creation of a new State
(D) The Bill providing for the creation of a new All India service
(E) None of these
22. How many Union Territories are there in India?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 6
(E) None of these
23 .What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Preshdentship ?
(A) 45 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 25
(D) None of these
24. A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for:
(A) Three months (B) Two months
(C) One year
(D) Till the President revokes it
(E) None of these
25. The reservation for SC and ST in Parliament and State Legislatures is extended for 10 years through Constitution’s :
(A) 84th Amendment
(B) 23rd Amendment
(C) 82 Amendment
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
26 .According to the newly adopted Constitution of Russia, the Prime Minister is appointed by:
(A) The State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the Federal Assembly
(B) The President , with the consent of the State Duma
(C) The President with the consent of the Federal Council
(D) The Federal Council
(E) None of these
27. Freedom of the Press in India:
(A) is specifically provided in Article 19(1) of the Constitution
(B) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution
(C) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution
(D) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in country
(E) None of these
28. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(A) Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(B) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
(C) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(D) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government?
(A) The government has two distinct levels, State government and Central or Union government
(B) State government are agents of the Central government
(C) Both Central government and State governments have coordinate status
(E) None of these
30. Article 243 of the Constitution of India, inserted by a constitutional amendment, deals with which of the following ?
(A) Extending the benefits of reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission’s recommendations
(B) Land Reforms
(C) To include Konkani ,Manipuri and Nepal in the list of official languages
(D) Panchayati Raj System
(E) None of these
31. The Estimates Committee of Parliament;
(A) Examines the statements of accounts of the government
(B) Considers the report of the Comptroller and Auditor – General of India
(C) Examines if the money is well laid out within policy limits
(D) Examines the budget before its presentation to Lok Sabha
(E) None of these
32. The notice for moving the Motion for Adjournment of the business of the House is required to be given to :
(A) The Presiding Officer of the House
(B) The Secretary General of the House
(C) The Minister concerned
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
33. The Election Commission functions under:
(A) Ministry of law
(B) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
(C) Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
34. In a parliamentary form of government , the executive is responsible to the ;
(A) People
(B) President
(C) Legislature
(D) Judiciary
(E) None of these
35. Education was transferred to the Concurrent List from the State List by the:
(A) 40th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 43rd Amendment Act
(D) 39th Amendment Act
(E) None of these
36. Indian Constitution provides for a:
(A) Presidential system
(B) Unicameral system
(C) Bicameral system
(D) Unitary system
(E) None of these
37. Presidential system of government is incompatible with the :
(A) Theory of Separation of power
(B) Executive Accountability to the Legislature
(C) Spoils System
(D) Spoils System
(E) None of these
38. Election symbols are allotted to various candidates for Parliamentary elections after scrttinx of nolination papdrs, by:
(A) Chidf Electhon Bommhssioner
(B) Chief Election Officer of the State
(C) Returning Officer of the Constituency
(D) Secretary to the Election Commissioner
(E) None of these
39. Which ideal of the Constitution of India is achieved by the implementation of the adult franchise in India?
(A) Social equality (B) Economic equality
(C) Political equality
(D) Equality before law
(E) None of these
40 . Article 254 of the Indian Constitution describes which of the following :
(A) The Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges
(B) The Union and State have concurrent power to legislate on any matter enumerated in List III
(C) In case of any conflict between Union laws and State laws, the Union laws shall prevail
(D) The Union has exclusive power to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the concurrent list or State list
(E) None of these
41. Who among the following can be removed from the office without impeachment ?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Governor of a State
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
(E) None of these
42. The original Constitution of India contained:
(A) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
(B) over 400 Articles and 10 Schedules
(C) 459 Articles and 9 Schedules
(D) 391 Articles and 10 Schedules
(E) None of these
43. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
(A) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(B) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the State
(C) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the State concerned
(D) Both the exercise of making a recommendation for election and issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
(E) None of these
44. Which one of the following cannot be called a function of the Constitution:
(A) It acts as a source of power and authority of the government
(B) It minimizes confusion and conflict between various organs of government
(C) It strengthens the hands of rulers to rule according to their discretion
(D) It lays down the limits of governmental authority
(E) None of these
45. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(B) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(C) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(D) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
(E) None of these
46. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(A) According to the Indian Constitution local government not an independent tier in the federal system
(B) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(C) Local government finances are to be provided by a commission
(D) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
(E) None of these
47. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament :
(A) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no confidence motion
(B) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(C) He can make statements only in the Upper House
(D) He has to become a member of the Lower House within Six month after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
(E) None of these
48. Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where:
(A) There are no reserved constituencies
(B) A two-party system has developed
(C) The first past –post system prevails
(D) There is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
(E) None of these
49. To be appointed as Advocate- General of the State, the person should possess the qualifications necessary for appointment as:
(A) A Judge of the Supreme Court
(B) A judge of the High Court
(C) A State Governor
(D) Chief Minister of the State
(E) None of these
50. To gullotine the demands for grants in Lok Sabha means:
(A) Rejecting the demands
(B) To vote on the demands without discussion on them
(C) To approve the expenditure proposals
(D) To defer consideration of the expenditure
(E) None of these
51. The Emergency can be proclaimed by:
(A) The President
(B) Parliament
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) Low Minister
(E) None of these
52.The Election Commission is constituted:
(A) Every five years
(B) Every ten years
(C) Every six years
(D) It is a Permanent constitutional body
(E) None of these
53. The Preamble of which country emphasizes domestic tranquility?
(A) India (B) Russia
(C) U.S.A (D) France
(E) None of these
54. Sarkaria Commission did not deal with:
(A) Formation of States
(B) Article 356
(C) Anandpur Saheb Resolution
(D) Centre-State Relations
(E) None of these
55. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is normally:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Speaker
(C) Leader of the opposition party
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of these
56. Which of the following will not constitute Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) All revenues received by the Government of India
(B) All loans raised by the Government of India
(C) Other Public Money
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
57. What is Oligarchy?
(A) Govt. by a priestly
(B) Govt. by military people
(C) Govt. by a few people
(D) None of the above
(E) None of the these
58. The Preamble of our Constitution envisages:
(A) Theoratic state
(B) Sovereign, democratic , secular and socialistic republic
(C) Secular democracy
(D) Monarchy
(E) None of these
59. The maximum period the Rajya Sabha can retain a Money Bill is :
(A) One month (B) Six month
(C) Fourteen days (D) One week
(E) None of these
60. The write ‘Prohibition’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) That no person remains in jail without any cause
(C) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular thing
(D) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
(E) None of these
61. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister in the Union Cabinet?
(A) Secretary to the Government of India
(B) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(C) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
(D) Supreme Court Judge
(E) None of these
62. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
(A) With the prior permission of the President
(B) Only after the Constitution is amended suitably
(C) At the request of two or more States
(D) None of these
63. In the Rajya Sabha the States have been provided:
(A) Equal representation
(B) Representation on the basis of population
(C) Representation on the basis of population and size
(D) Representation on the basis of size
(E) None of these
64. Article 33 of Constitution of India empowers Parliament to ….
(A) Dissolve State Legislatures
(B) Restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights in their application to armed forces or other forces charged with the maintenance of public order
(C) Recall State Governors
(D) Issue directions to State Governments
(E) Nome of these
65. What is the duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 15 minute (B) Half an hour
(C) One hour (D) Not specified
(E) None of these
66. How is the change in government in modern State carried out?
(A) Through violence and bloodshed
(B) Through compromise and electoral adjustments among the competing forces
(C) Through elections and smooth transfer of power
(D) By bringing all aspects of life to a standstill
(E) None of these
67. The President of India must have completed the age of:
(A) 25 years (B) 35 years
(C) 30 years (D) 40years
(E) None of these
68. The Writ ‘certiorari’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to inferior curt to remove a suit and adjudicate upon the validity of the proceedings
(C) That no person remains in jail without any cause
(D) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
(E) None of these
69. The maximum period emergency may be in force continuously in a State is:
(A) Six months (B) Three months
(C) Three years (D) 6 years
(E) None of these
70. In an election electioneering has to cease in a constituency:
(A) 2 days before the poll
(B) 48 hours before the commencement of polling
(C) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
(D) 24 hours before the poll
(E) None of these
71. When was the constitution of India first amended after adoption?
(A) 1954 (B) 1959
(C) 1950 (D) 1951
(E) None of these
72. The Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces is:
(A) Field Marshall
(B) Chief of the Army Staff
(C) The President
(D) The Prime Minister
(E) None of these
73. Who enjoys the legislative powers?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Parliament
(E) None of these
74. The amendment regarding the procedure of the election of the President must be passed by:
(A) Both the Houses
(B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Only Rajya Sabha
(D) Both the House and by not less than half of the State Legislatures
(E) None of these
75. The Constitution of India was amended for the first time in :
(A) January 1951 (B) June, 1951
(C) June, 1952 (D) July, 1952
(E) None of these
76. The Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India because:
(A) They may get salaries regularly every month
(B) Their salaries may by free from legislative vote
(C) There may not be any cut in their salaries
(D) Their financial position may be secured to enable them to dispense impartial justice
(E) None of these
77. Which of the following will not make a Bill, a money Bill?
(A) The imposition, abolition ,alteration or regulation of any tax
(B) The imposition of fines, or other pecuniary penalties
(C) The appropriation of money of the Consolidated Fund of India
(D) Salaries of President , MPs
(E) None of these
78. What is ergotocracy?
(A) Govt. run by workers
(B) Govt. run by old people
(C) Govt. run by rich people
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
79 .When the office of the President falls vacant , the Vice- President automatically become the President in :
(A) India (B) Russia
(C) U.K (D) U.S.A
(E) None of these
80. The Rajya Sabha member must have completed the age of :
(A) 21 years (B) 25 years
(C) 30 years (D) 35 years
(E) None of these
81. According to the Preamble , our Constitution envisages:
(A) Social Justice only
(B) Economic Justice only
(C) Political Justice only
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
82. The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution can be suspended during :
(A) General election
(B) National emergency
(C) All types of emergencies
(D) In all the above situations
(E) None of these
83. The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in :
(A) 1952 (B) 1953
(C) 1954 (D) 1951
(E) None of these
84. The most powerful agency for the formation of public opinion is:
(A) Elections (B) Public meetings
(C) The press (D) Political parties
(E) None of these
85. Which one of the following is the exclusive power of the Council of States?
(A) To introduce a Money Bill
(B) To accept or reject a Money Bill
(C) To decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(D) To declare that in the national interest , Parliament should make laws in respect to any matter that is included in the State Legislative List
(E) None of these
86. The amendment regarding the formation of a New State by separating territory from any other State must be passed by :
(A) Both House of Parliament
(B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Only Rajya Sabha
(D) Both the Houses and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President
(E) None of these
87. Who decides whether a bill is a ‘Money Bill’?
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) Parliamentary Select Committee
(E) None of these
88. National flag of India was presented on behalf of :
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) The people of India
(C) The women of India
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
89. Which of the following will not be the condition under which the President can declare Emergency?
(A) When there is a war
(B) When there is external aggression
(C) When no party has got absolute majority to form ministry at the Centre
(D) When there is internal disturbance
(E) None of these
90. Which one of the following constitutional amendments gives constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institution?
(A) 72nd (B) 73rd
(C) 74th (D) 75th
(E) None of these
91. What is demagogy?
(A) Govt. run by oratorians
(B) Govt. run by teachers
(C) Govt. run by old people
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
92. Under which one of the following Articles , the Supreme Court has been given the powers to review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously?
(A) Article 130
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139
(E) None of these
93. Which one of the following Articles has declared untouchability in any form as un-constitutional ?
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 17
(C) Article 44 (D) Article 45
(E) None of these
94. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of :
(A) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Governor
(D) The Vice-President
(E) None of these
95. All Ministers at the center are appointed by:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President
(C) The Vice – President
(D) Home Minister
(E) None of these
96. The Emergency automatically suspends:
(A) Fundamental Rights under Article 19
(B) The Power of the Governors
(C) The power of the Courts
(D) State government
(E) None of these
97. The system of dual citizenship exists in ;
(A) U.S.A (B) France
(C) India (D) U.K.
(E) None of these
98. The basis of classifying government as Unitary and Federal is :
(A) Relationship between the Centre and States
(B) Relationship between the Legislative and Executive]
(C) Relationship between the Legislature and Judiciary
(D) Relationship between the Prime Minister and the President
(E) None of these
99. The writ ‘Quo Warranto’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Court to anybody to do some particular thing
(C) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of Jurisdiction
(D) To be issued by a court when a person acts in a capacity to which he is not entitled
(E) None of these
100. Which of the following cannot be the reason to declare Financial Emergency?
(A) Threat to financial stability of India
(B) Threat to the credit of India
(C) Drain of foreign exchange by smuggling , unauthorized trading etc.
(D) Financial bankruptcy
(E) None of these
101. The voting age in general elections was reduced from 21 years to 18 by the :
(A) 72nd Amendment
(B) 62nd Amendment
(C) 61st Amendment
(D) 71st Amendment
(E) None of these
102. In the Indian Constitution , the word ‘Cabinet’ has been used only once, and it is in :
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 76
(E) None of these
103.Our Constitution was adopted on :
(A) 26th November , 1949
(B) 15th August , 1945
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 15th August, 1947.
(E) None of these
104. When can a bill be referred to the parliamentary Committee?
(A) Just after being placed in the Parliament
(B) After general debate/ discussion in the second reading
(C) After partial debate/ discussion
(D) After difference between the two Houses
(E) None of these
105. The President of India can declare an emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India if there is:
(A) War or any threat of war
(B) Failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(C) Financial instability in the center
(D) Armed rebellion in the country
(E) None of these
106. The writ ‘Habeas Corpus’ ensures:
(A) Issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
(B) That no person remains in jail without any cause
(C) Issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular thing
(D) Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
(E) None of these
107. De facto sovereign refers to :
(A) A person who is the lawful ruler of the country
(B) King who has lawfully inherited to the throne
(C) A person or body of persons who actually exercise power
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
108. The power of issuing writs not only for Fundamental Rights but for other purposes also, is with:
(A) Supreme Court (B) High Courts
(C) Lower Court (D) President
(E) None of these
109. The legal sovereignty resides in :
(A) The court which decide the disputes
(B) The Constitution of a country
(C) The body which possesses supreme law making powers
(D) The head of the State
(E) None of these
110. Money bills must be introduced in:
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha Only
(C) Either of these two
(D) Both the House at a time
(E) None of these
111. The Budget is presented to the Parliament normally on :
(A) The last day of March
(B) The last day of February
(C) 15th March
(D) 1st April
(E) None of these
112. The President’s Rule is imposed in a State:
(A) When a Chief Minister misbehaves
(B) When the Governor becomes disloyal to the Centre
(C) When there is breakdown of constitutional machinery
(D) When there is police firing
(E) None of these
113. What is the age of retirement prescribed for a Supreme Court Judge?
(A) 58 years (B) 60 years
(C) 65 years (D) No age limit
(E) None of these
114. How many regional languages were originally recognized by the Constitution?
(A) 14 (B) 15
(C) 16 (D) 17
(E) None of these
115. Which two words have been added in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?
(A) Federal and Democratic
(B) Secular and Sovereign
(C) Secular and Socialist
(D) Federal and Socialist
(E) None of these
116. How many types of emergencies does the Constitution envisage?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) four
(E) None of these
117. How long can a person be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of either House of Parliament ?
(A) One year (B) Six months
(C) Three months (D) One month
(E) None of these
118. In which part of the Constitution are Fundamental Rights given?
(A) Part I (B) Part III
(C) Part IV (D) Part V
(E) None of these
119. Which of the following languages become the 15th official language in1967 by the 21st Amendment?
(A) Oriya (B) Kashmiri
(C) Assomese (D) Sindhi
(E) None of these
120. To Whom/ Which institution is the Prime Minister responsible?
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) The President
(C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha
(E) None of these
121. When was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held?
(A) January 26,1948
(B) August 16,1947
(C) December 9,1946
(D) November 26,1947
(E) None of these
122. When was the first national emergency proclaimed in India?
(A) 1966 (B) 1971
(C) 1978 (D) 1987
(E) None of these
123. What is the tenure of the office of the Governor of a State?
(A) During the pleasure of the Prime Minister
(B) 5 years
(C) During the pleasure of the Speaker
(D) 6 years
(E) None of these
124. which of the following had influenced the Constitution of India the most ?
(A) The British Constitution
(B) The US Constitution
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The UN Charter
(E) None of these
125. Into how many States and Union Territories was the country divided by the States Reorganisation Act , 1956?
(A) 22 States, 9 Union Territories
(B) 14 States, 6 Union Territories
(C) 14 States, 7 Union Territories
(D) 25 States, 9 Union Territories
(E) None of these
126. Which of the following writs literally means ‘What is your authority’?
(A)Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Prohibition
(E) None of these
127. Which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for National Commissions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes separately?
(A) 90th (B) 89th
(C) 91st (D) 88th
(E) None of these
128. The Trade Union affiliated with the Congress Party is:
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Centre for Indian Trade Unions
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
(E) None of these
129. The following Article of the Indian Constitution abolished the Practice of un-touchability:
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 18
(C) Article 17 (D) Article 19
(E) None of these
130. Which one of the following schedules of the constitution is releated to ‘Anti Defection Law’?
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) 13th
(E) None of these
131. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Seventh Schedule
(E) None of these
132. Name the committee for formulating the framework of restructuring railways:
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(E) None of these
133. Who is legally competent under the Indian Constitution to declare war or conclude peace?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Council of Ministers
(D) The Parliament
(E) None of these
134. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India?
(A) Governors of the States
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(C) Vice President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
(E) None of these
135. What was the exact constitutional position of the India Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from January 26, 1950?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(E) None of these
136. A federal structure of India was first put forward by the :
(A) Act of 1909 (B) Act of 1919
(C) Act of 1935 (D) Act of 1947
(E) None of these
137. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) By the President
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
(E) None of these
138. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected members on the ground of defection?
(A) 8th (B) 9th
(C) 10th (D) 11th
(E) None of these
139. What is the correct order of succession (earlier to later) among the following Presidents of India?
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussian
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishanan
(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
4. V.V. Giri
(A) 2,3,4,1 (B) 3,2,4,1
(C) 4,1,2,3 (D) 2,1,4,3
(E) 3,4,2,1
140. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the :
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
(E) None of these
141. Which one of the following was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution ?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) Right to freedom of religion
(E) None of these
142. The first woman Judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was:
(A) Rani Jethmalani
(B) Anna George Malhotra
(C) M. Fathima Beevi
(D) Leila Seth
(E) None of these
143. The 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains:
(A) States and Union Territories
(B) Salaries of President , Vice-President, etc.
(C) Union List , State List and Concurrent List
(D) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
(E) None of these
144. Which of the following languages are included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(A) Sindhi and English
(B) English and Kashmiri
(C) Kashmiri and Gorkhai
(D) Sindhi and Kashmiri
(E) None of these
145. The 8th Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
(A) The list of 18 regional languages
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
146. As a non-member who can participate to the proceedings of either House of Parliament?
(A) Vice-President
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Attorney- General
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
(E) None of these
147. According to the 44th Amendment Bill :
(A) Fundamental Rights are given supremacy over Directive Principles
(B) Parliament gets supreme power
(C) Right to Property has been taken away from the list Fundamental Rights
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
148. Which Amendment to the Constitution gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
(A) 44th (B) 42nd
(C) 40th (D) 25th
(E) None of these
149. Which Amendment Bill inserted the 10th Schedule in the Constitution of India?
(A) 50th (B) 52nd
(C) 44th (D) 42nd
(E) None of these
150. When did India have its first General Elections?
(A) 1947 (B) 1949
(C) 1950 (D) 1951
(E) None of these
151. What is the elective strength of the Lok Sabha?
(A) 525 (B) 450
(C) 545 (D) 548
(E) None of these
152. A Parliamentary Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is sent to the President for his assent. The President sends it back to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration .If the Lok Sabha again passed the Bill and sends it to the President for assent , the President :
(A) Must approve it
(B) Can again send the Bill for reconsideration]
(C) Can take the help of he Supreme Court
(D) Can arrange for a referendum
(E) None of these
153. The total strength of the Rajya Sabha does not exceed:
(A) 200 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 450 members
(D) 525 members
(E) None of these
154. What is the maximum strength of the state Legislative Assembly?
(A) 250 (B) 350
(C) 525 (D) 455
(E) None of these
155. Who presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Vice- President
(E) None of these

ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
D D C A B C A C D C C D
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
C D A D B C C A C C D C
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
B B B D D D A A D C B C
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
B A D C C A A C D A A B
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A A D C A C C C B C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
B D B B D C B B C C D C
73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84
D D B B B A D C D B B C
85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96
D D A C C C D B B C B A
97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
A A D C C A A C C B C B
109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C A B C C A C C B B D D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132
C A B C B C B B C B C C
133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144
A C B B D C D C C C C D
145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A C C B B D C A B C C

Marketing Related Questions for Bank Exam

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MARKETING
1.The functions of distribution channel do not include….
(A) Gathering and providing market in formation
(B) Marketing research
(C) Assisting the consumer in understanding and using the goods
(D) Promoting the sales of goods
(E) None of these
2.Of the following characteristics ….is found only in some services like banking and not found in case of many services..
(A) Inseparability
(B) Variability
(C) Client relationship
(D) Perishability
(E) None of these
3.Distribution channels carry out the following functions except…
(A) Physical distribution
(B) Fixing the price
(C) Matching the offer
(D) Risk taking
(E) None of these
4.A direct marketing channel is also called as……level channel:
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) One (D) Zero
(E) None of these
5.Computerised banking services have helped in working around the followig characteristics….
(A) Perishability and client relationship
(B) Inseparability and client relationship
(C) Variability and perishability
(D) Inseparability and intangibility
(E) None of these
6.Of the following intermediaries,…….are not found working for banks:
(A) Direct sales agents
(B) Wholesellars
(C) Automobiles dealers
(D) Merchant establishments
(E) None of these
7.The following is not among the tasks performed under physical distribution …
(A) Storage of goods
(B) Taking orders
(C) Forecasting demand for product
(D) Servicing of the product
(E) None of these
8.The tools for communications with the customer are:
(A) Promotion mix
(B) Product and Price
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) (A) and other three elements of marketing mix
(E) None of these
9.Promotion seeks to influence the buyer in decision- marking through..
(A) Persuasion (B) Compulsion
(C) Reminding
(D) (A), (C) , information and reinforcement
(E) None of these
10.Promotion is an exercise of maintaining contact with the consumer at different levels so as to…
(A) Enhance customer relationship
(B) Lure the customer in to buying the products
(C) Prevent customer from being critical of thefirm
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
11.An advertisement is not for…
(A) Suggesting new uses of a product
(B) Telling about a new product
(C) Explaining how a product works
(D) Building brand preference
(E) None of these
12.Direct marketing does not cover…..
(A) Online marketing
(B) Public relations
(C) Personal selling
(D) Catalogue marketing
(E) None of these
13.Dollar Rupee Co-operative Bank with ten branches in Mumbai should not opt for ….. as medium for its advertisement campaign:
(A) Star Plus Channel on
(B) Munbai edition of Mid-Day eveninger
(C) Hoarding at Dadar in Mumbai
(D) Suburban train in Mumbai
(E) None of these
14.Personal selling is not an ideal medium of communication for…
(A) Core banking system
(B) Internet banking
(C) A product in decline stage
(D) Treasury- based investment product
(E) None of these
15.3Public relations element will not in clued…
(A) A report on the bank appearing in a periodical
(B) A programme of Lata Mangeskar sponsored by the bank
(C) An eye camp for cataract surgery sponsored by the bank
(D) A presentation made to the employees of Utpadansheel Udyog Ltd.
(E) None of these
16.Firms need to collect and analyse the data pertaining to marketing for….
(A) Projecting their organization as knowledge oriented
(B) Enabling the top management to keep control over the sales force
(C) Taking the required steps for effective marketing of their products
(D) For utilising their information technology capabilities
(E) None of these
17.An effective MIS fulfills these….
(A) Analysis of quantitative information
(B) Coordination among functional and specialists executives
(C) Limited to current scenario
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
18.The components of Marketing Information System do not include…
(A) Marketing Intelligence System
(B) Internal Records System
(C) Information technology System
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
19.The ultimate users of the Marketing Information System are:
(A) the customers of the firm
(B) the competitors of the firm
(C) the decision markers in the firm
(D) both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
20.Which of the following situation falls under the purview of Marketing Research System?
(A) Riddhi Vriddhi Bank wants to send Diwali greeting cards to all its fixed deposit account holders with deposits of Rs. 10,000 or more
(B) Money Honey Bank wants to have a profile of Kalahandi District to decide about opening a new branch there
(C) Get Rich Fast Bank wants a comparative business statistics with other 10 per level banks in the country
(D) Baroda branch of Prosperous Customer Bank is twelve-year –old and it recorded a compounded annual growth rate of 20% in deposits during the first ten years, which has been better than the industry average. However, during the last two years the branch has witnessed a significant decline in its deposits. Managing Director of the Bank desires of know the causes for this reversal in the business trend and suggestions for amelioration the situation.
(E) None of these
21.Which is the following is a part of the core concepts of marketing ?
(A) Needs, wants and demand
(B) Value, cost and demand
(C) Exchange , transactions and relationship
(D) All of these (E) None of these
22.Which of the following is not a part of the core concept of marketing?
(A) Needs, wants and demand
(B) Value, cost and satisfaction
(C) Transfers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
23.Marketing thinking starts with the fact of :
(A) Human needs area of business
(B) Basic functional area of business
(C) Earning profit
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
24.Wants become demand when supported by:
(A) Cost of the product
(B) Purchasing power
(C) Value of the product
(D) Price of the product
(E) None of these
25.Demand are wants for a specific products that are backed by :
(A) Ability to buy (B) Willingness to buy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
26.When an individual feels deprivation of some basic satisfaction, it is termed as :
(A) Want (B) Need
(C) Demand (D) Imagination
(E) None of these
27.Marketing emerges when people decide to satisfy needs and wants through ex-change . Exchange occurs through:
(A) Self production (B) Coercion
(C) Exchange (D) All of these
(E) None of these
28.For exchange to take place, which condition (s) must be satisfied :
(A) At least two parties
(B) All involved must have something that might be of value to the other party
(C) Each party is free to accept or reject the offer
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
29.The basic unit of exchange is called :
(A) Purchase
(B) Sale
(C) Transfer
(D) Transaction
(E) None of these
30.A ‘market’ from a ‘marketing perspective’ is a :
(A) Group of buyers and sellers negotiating and exchange
(B) Group of consumers willing and able to engage in exchange
(C) Group of producers, whole sellers and retailers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
31.Marketing management includes:
(A) Analysing
(B) Planning
(C) Implementing and control
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
32.Which is not a part of marketing management :
(A) Planning
(B) Analysing
(C) Raising funds
(D) Implementation and control
(E) None of these
33.Production concept holds that consumers will favour those products that are :
(A) Widely available
(B) Lower in cost
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Higher in Cost
(E) None of these
34.Managers of production- oriented organizations concentrate on achieving :
(A) High production efficiency
(B) Wide distribution coverage
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
35.Henry Ford pioneered in the early 1900s to expand the automobile market . He put all his talent into perfecting the mass production and to bring down the cost. This is most indicative of the …..concept :
(A) Production (B) Selling
(C) Marketing (D) Product
(E) None of these
36.Product concept holds that consumers will favour those products that offer :
(A) Quality
(B) Performance
(C) Innovative features
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
37.In marketing concept ,the achievement of organizational goal is accomplished through:
(A) Increasing sales
(B) Product innovation
(C) Customer satisfaction
(D) Promotional mix
(E) None of these
38.Which is not a part of selling concept :
(A) Customer if part alone will ordinarily not buy
(B) Aggressive selling and promotional efforts
(C) Focus on the needs of the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
39.Producers of ‘unsought goods’ normally employed the …..concept:
(A) Production (B) Product
(C) Selling (D) Marketing
(E) None of these
40‘Self want company make rather than what market wants’ is a ……concept :
(A) Product (B) Production
(C) Selling (D) Marketing
(E) None of these
41.Selling concept is best applicable to:
(A) Insurance (B) Incyclopedias
(C) Fund raisers (D) All of these
(E) None of these
42.The marketing concept holds that key to achieving organizational goals consist in
(A) Determining the need and wants of target market
(B) Delivering the desired satisfaction more effectively
(C) Effectively than competitors
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
43.Selling focuses on the needs of the ….; marketing on the needs of …..:
(A) Buyer, seller
(B) Seller, buyer
(C) Market, producer
(D) Producer ,seller
(E) None of these
44.Selling is pre occupied with the sellers need to convert his product into…; marketing with the idea of satisfying the needs of the ….:
(A) Cash , customer (B) Customer, cash
(C) Sale, producers
(D) Finished goods, customer
(E) None of these
45.Marketing concept rests on:
(A) Target market
(B) Customers needs
(C) Co- ordinated marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
46.Which is not a marketing concept:
(A) Meeting needs profitably
(B) Have the customer, not the product
(C) Find wants and fill them
(D) Producing efficiently
(E) None of these
47.Which statement reflects the marketing philosophy in a better way :
(A) Declining sales thus follow aggressive promotion policy
(B) Improve the quality of the product
(C) Motivating the sales force fo-increasing the sales volume
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
48.Internal marketing is the task of successfully:
(A) Hiring the employees
(B) Training the employees
(C) Motivating the employees
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
49.Successfully hiring, training and motivating able employees who want to serve the customers well is:
(A) Internal marketing
(B) Relationship marketing
(C) Product marketing
(D) Service marketing
(E) None of these
50.The controlling force in an organization under marketing concept should be :
(A) Producer (B) Customer
(C) Seller (D) Middleman
(E) None of these
51.Which of the following reflects the best societal concept:
(A) High quality material
(B) Low priced material
(C) Eco- friendly material
(D) Non-destroyable material
(E) None of these
52.Customer delivered value is the difference between :
(A) Total customer value and total customer cost
(B) Sale price and cost price
(C) Value and price
(D) Total customer desire and total customer demand
(E) None of these
53.Total customer value is :
(A) Price a customer pays for the product or service
(B) Bundle of benefits customer expects
(C) Cost of the product of service
(D) Marginal cost of the product or service
(E) None of these
54.Customer delivered value is maximised through:
(A) Lowering the price
(B) Improving the quality of the product
(C) Lowering monetary cost
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
55.A survey which ask you to indicate the extent of satisfaction of a three point scale i.e satisfied , indifferent or dissatisfied is…………..method of measuring satisfaction:
(A) Directly reported satisfaction
(B) Problem analysis
(C) Derived satisfaction
(D) Performance analysis
(E) None of these
56.A Survey which ask you how closely your music system lived up to your expectation is….. method of measuring satisfaction:
(A) Problem analysis
(B) Directly reported satisfaction
(C) Derived satisfaction
(D) Performance analysis
(E) None of these
57.A survey which ask you to indicate any problems you had with your new music system and give your suggestion for improvement is …… method of measuring satisfaction:
(A) Derived satisfaction
(B) Performance analysis
(C) Suggestion analysis
(D) Problem analysis
(E) None of these
58.Which of the following is not a primary activity in the value chain process:
(A) Procurement
(B) Operations
(C) Marketing and Sales
(D) Services
(E) None of these
59.The task of creating strong customer loyalty is called:
(A) Accountable marketing
(B) Total quality marketing
(C) Relationship marketing
(D) Direct marketing
(E) None of these
60.The sales person sells the product but does not contact the customers again is an example of ……. Marketing:
(A) Basic
(B) Reactive
(C) Accountable
(D) Proactive
(E) None of these
61.The sales person sells the product and encourages the customer to call if he/she has any complaint or quarry is an example of ……..marketing :
(A) Basic
(B) Reactive
(C) Proactive
(D) Accountable
(E) None of these
62.The Company’s sales person phones the customer from time to time with suggestions about improved product use are helpful in new products is an example of:
(A) Basic marketing
(B) Reactive marketing
(C) Proactive marketing
(D) Accountable marketing
(E) None of these
63.Which of the following is not a component of total quality marketing programme:
(A) Quality must be perceived by customers
(B) Quality is necessary but may not be sufficient
(C) Quality can always be improved]
(D) Quality drive can save a poor product
(E) None of these
64.In developing the marketing strategy for a business, all the following would be considered except:
(A) Interest of top management
(B) Industry position
(C) Objectives and opportunities
(D) Skills and resources
(E) None of these
65.Which of the following is very difficult to change:
(A) Company’s structure
(B) Company’s policies
(C) Company’s culture
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
66.Who stated “What is our business? Who is the customer ? What is value to the customer? What will our business be? What should our business be?
(A) Milton Kotler
(B) Georg H. Brown
(C) Philip Kotler
(D) Peter Drucker
(E) None of these
67.Which is not an element of company’s mission:
(A) Current preference of the owners and management
(B) Market environment
(C) Distinctive competencies
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
68.In marketing , SBU stands for :
(A) Strategic business unit
(B) Self business unit
(C) State business undertaking
(D) Small business unit
(E) None of these
69.Which of the following is product oriented definition :
(A) We sell hope
(B) We distribute information
(C) We make cosmetic
(D) We supply energy
(E) None of these
70.Which of the following is market oriented definition :
(A) We make air conditioner
(B) We supply energy
(C) We make copying equipment
(D) We make movies
(E) None of these
71.The growth share matrix developed by Bostan consulting group has…..on x-axis:
(A) Relative market share
(B) Maerket growth rate
(C) Growth rate of the economic
(D) Growth rate in market price
(E) None of these
72.Which of the following is appropriate for strong cash cows if they are to continue to yield a large positive cash flow:
(A) Hold (B) Maintain
(C) Harvest (D) Divest
(E) None of these
73.Which of the following is appropriate for dogs and quest marks that are dragging on the company’s profit:
(A) Hold (B) Maintain
(C) Harvest (D) Divest
(E) None of these
74.Harvesting is least appropriate for :
(A) Dogs
(B) Question marks
(C) Stars
(D) Cash cows
(E) None of these
75.Intensive growth opportunities means:
(A) To identify further opportunities to achieve growth with in the company’s current business
(B) To identify opportunities to build or acquire business that are related to company’s current business.
(C) To identify opportunities to add attractive business that are unrelated to the company’s business
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
76.Which of the following is not a part of intensive growth:
(A) Product development
(B) Market development
(C) Market penetration
(D) Horizontal integration
(E) None of these
77.Which is the following is a part of integrated growth:
(A) Forward integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Horizontal integration
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
78.Which is the following is a part of the diversification growth:
(A) Horizontal diversification
(B) Concentric diversification
(C) Conglomerate diversification
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
79.DCM manufactures cloth and also owns and operates retail outlets. DCM is engaged in:
(A) Horizontal integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Forward integration
(D) Diversifiction
(E) None of these

80.Tata group is engaged in different business activites like iron and steel, automobiles, software , telecommunication . It is a form of:
(A) Horizontal diversification
(B) Forward diversification
(C) Conglomerate diversification
(D) Backward diversification
(E) None of these
81. Brooke Bond is producing and selling tea and has its own tea estates is an examples of:
(A) Forward integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Horizontal integration
(D) Conglomerate
(E) None of these
82. If a company seeks new product that have technological/or market synergies with its existing product lines , even though the product may appeal to a new target market is an example of…. diversification strategy.
(A) Concentric
(B) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(D) Conglomerated
(E) None of these
83. If a company searches for new technologically unrelated products that appeal to its current customers is an example of ….. diversification strategy.
(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical
(C) Concentric (D) Conglomerate
(E) None of these
84. If a company seeks new business that has no relationship of its current technology, product or market is a form of …… diversification.
(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical
(C) Concentric (D) Conglomerate
(E) None of these
85. An ideal business is ….. in major opportunities and …… in major threats:
(A) Low, high (B) High , low
(C) High , high (D) High, low
(E) None of these
86. Speculative business is … in opportunities and … in threats:
(A) Low. low (B) Low, high
(C) High, high (D) High. low
(E) None of these
87. Mature business is… in opportunities and … in threats:
(A) Low. low (B) Low, high
(C) High, low (D) High. high
(E) None of these
88. A troubled business is …….. in opportunities and ….in threats
(A) Low, high (B) High , low
(C) High , high (D) Low, low
(E) None of these
89. Michael Poters generic strategy formulated include all the following except:
(A) Overalll cost leadership
(B) Quality
(C) Differentiation
(D) Focus
(E) None of these
90. Mc Knsey’s 7-S framework, include all the hardware, except:
(A) Structure (B) Strategy
(C) System (D) Skill
(E) None of these
91. Mc Knsey’s 7-S framework, include all the following software, except:
(A) Strategy (B) Skill
(C) Style (D) Shared value
(E) None of these
92. Which of the following is/ are value creation and delivery process developed by the Japanese :
(A) Zero customer feed back time
(B) Zero purchasing time
(C) Zero defects
(D) All of these (E) None of these
93. In marketing jargon, STP stands for :
(A) Segment target position
(B) Segment target plan
(C) Sales tax provision
(D) Segment trade profit
(E) None of these
94. Which of the following is a part of the micro environment :
(A) Economic (B) Social
(C) Political (D) Supplier
(E) None of there
94. Which of the following is a part of the macro environment :
(A) Supplier (B) Intermediaries
(C) Demography (D) Competition
(E) None of these
96. A company’s market environment consist of:
(A) Micro environment
(B) Macro environment
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Segregation
(E) None of these
97. Process of dividing the total market into smaller groups having homogeneity is called:
(A) Segregation (B) Recomposition
(C) Segmentation (D) Division
(E) None of these
98. The element that is not a part of company’s product decision is:
(A) Product features
(B) Packaging
(C) Branding
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
99. Robert Lauferborn suggested that the 4 Ps correspond to the customers’ 4 Cs. Find the correct match Product:
Product 1. Communication
Price 2. Convenience
Place 3. Cost of the customer
Promotion 4. Customers needs and wants
(A) 4,2,3,1 (B) 4,3,2,1
(C) 4,2,1,3, (D) 4,1,2,3
(F) None of these
100. To determine its strengths and weaknesses, manager might ask customers all of the following except;
(A) Was the quality except;
(B) Was the price reasonable?
(C) Have you heard the company slogan?
(D) None of these
101. the final step in marketing plan is:
(A) Goals and objectives
(B) Preparing projected profit and loss accounts
(C) Control
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
102. Managers scan the environment through :
(A) Undirected viewing
(B) Conditioned viewing
(C) Formal and informal search
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
103. Primary data is generally collected through:
(A) Survey (B) Experiment
(C) Observation (D) Census report
(E)None of these
104. Secondary data is collected through :
(A) Observation
(B) Survey
(C) Official record
(D) Experiment
(E) None of these
105. Casual research is :
(A) Together primary data to shed light on the real nature of the problem
(B) To ascertain certain magnitudes
(C) To find out cause and effect relationship
(D) To explore the gravity of the situation
(E) None of these
106. Generally the best research approach suited for descriptive research is :
(A) Observation
(B) Survey
(C) Cross sectional
(D) Experimental
(E) None of these
107. Generally speaking the best research approach for casual research is :
(A) Observation
(B) Survey
(C) Cross sectional
(D) Experimental
(E) None of these
108. Generally speaking the best research approach for exploratory research is ;
(A)Observation
(B)Survey
(C)Cross sectional
(D)Experimental
(E)None of these
109. A study to determine if advertising expenses increases by 10 per cent , the sales will increase by x per cent . It is a form of :
(A) Exploratory
(B) Descriptive
(C) Casual
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
110. In the marketing survey, the surveyor asks the questions; Do you like our product? Yes / No It is a form of :
(A) Dichotomous
(B) Likert scale
(C) Semantic differential
(D) Rating scale
(E) None of these
111. The question small airlines generally give better service than large one :
Strongly disagree
Disagree
Neither agree nor disagree
Agree
Strongly agree
It is a form of :
(A) Multiple choice
(B) Likert scale
(C) Semantic differential
(D) Rating scale
(E) None of these
112. A statement with which the respondent shows the amount of agreement / disagreement is a :
(A) Likert scale
(B) Semantic differential
(C) Rating scale
(D) Multiple choice
(E) None of these
113. A scale connecting two bio-pollar words, where the respondent selects the point that represents his or her opinion is a :
(A) Likert scale
(B) Semantic differential
(C) Rating scale
(D) Multiple choice
(E) None of these
114. A scale that rates some attribute from poor to excellent is a :
(A) Likert scale
(B) Semantic diferential
(C) Rating scale
(D) Multiple choice
(E) None of these
115. A picture is presented and a respondent is asked to make up a story to about what they think is happening or may happen in think is happening or may happen in the picture is a :
(A) Word association test
(B) Story completion test
(C) Picture completion test
(D) Thematic appreciation test
(E) None of these
116. An incomplete story is presented and respondents are asked to complete it. It is a :
(A) Thematic appreciation test
(B) Picture completion test
(C) Story completion test
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
117. Which is not a probability sampling:
(A) Simple random sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Area sampling
(E) None of these
118. Which of the following is not a non probability sampling :
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Cluster sampling
(E) None of these
119. When the population is divided into mutually exclusive groups and random samples are drawn from each group. It is called :
(A) Stratified sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Area sampling
(D) Multi- stage sampling
(E) None of these
120. When the population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as blocks and the researcher draws a sample from the group or block is called :
(A) Area sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Stratified sampling
(E) None of these
121. When time factors is most important, then the best contact method with the respondet is:
(A) Personal intervies
(B) Mailed questionnaire
(C) Telephone interviewing
(D) Schedule
(E) None of these
122. The contract method, which minimizes the interview’s bais is a :
(A) Telephone interview
(B) Mailed questionnaire
(C) Personal interview
(D) Schedule
(E) None of these]
123. XYZ Co. wanted to know how their sales are influenced by price , advertising etc. The best statistical tool is:
(A) Correlation analysis
(B) Simple regression analysis
(C) Multiple regression analysis
(D) Discriminate analysis
(E) None of these
124. When the company wants to distinguish its products into good quality and poor quality on the basis of various features of the product. The best analysis is :
(A) Regression analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Discriminant analysis
(D) F- Test
(E) None of these
125. Which of the following is a parametric test :
(A) sign test (B) Median test
(C) Run test (D) T- test
(E)None of these
126. Which of the following is a non-parametric test:
(A) Z-test (B) T- test
(C) F- test (D) X2-test
(E) None of these
127. Find odd man out :
(A) Discriminant analysis
(B) Mailed questionnaire ,survey
(C) Conjoint analysis
(D) Cluster analysis
(E) None of these
128. A direction is sequence of events which have some momentum and disability is :
(A) Fad
(B) Trend
(C) Mega- trend
(D) Fashion
(E) None of these
129. A fad is :
(A) Unpredictable
(B) Short lived
(C) Without social, economic , political significance
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
130. A trend, according to futurist ‘Faith Popcorn’ has:
(A) Longevity
(B) Observable across several market areas and consumer activities
(C) Consistent with other significant indicators
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
131. Mashroom haircut is an example of
(A) Fad (B) Trend
(C) Mega-trend (D) Fashion
(E) None of these
132. Within the rapidly changing global picture, the firm must monitor:
(A) Demographic variables
(B) Technological
(C) Political
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
133. Which of the following is not a determinant of purchasing power:
(A) Current income
(B) Credit availability
(C) Debt
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
134. Starting point for understanding the buyer is:
(A) Stimulus
(B) Psychology
(C) Stimulus response
(D) Purchasing power
(E) None of these
135. All the groups that have a direct (face to face) or indirect influence on the persons attitudes or behaivour is:
(A)Reference group
(B) Aspirational group
(C) Disassociate group
(D) Disadvantage group
(E) None of these
136. Group to which a person would like to beglong is called:
(A)Reference group
(B) Disadvantage group
(C) Disassociate group
(D) Aspirational group
(E) None of these
137. Primary group includes:
(A) Family (B) Friend
(C) Neighbourers (D) All of these
(E) None of these
138. In marketing ‘VALS’ stands for:
(A) Values of life style
(B) Value and luxuries
(C) Variation for living standard
(D) Vital aids for living standard
(E) None of these
139. Which of the following slogan most closely reflects self actualization motive:
(A) Thanda mat lab : Coca- Cola
(B) Yehi hai right choice baby : Pepsi
(C) Kar Lo Dunia Muthi Main : Reliance
(D) We serve the nation : Army
(E) None of these
140. Who stated the real psychological forces shaping people behaviour are largely unconscious :
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Abreham Maslow
(C) Frederick Herzberg
(D) Eric Burne
(E) None of these
141. Ad. Repetition creates…….. rather than …..
(A) Brand familiarity, brand loyalty
(B) Brand loyalty, brand convection
(C) Brand convection, brand familiarity
(D) Brand familiarity , brand convection
(E) None of these
142. Mr. X is doing research on buying decision process. He asked the marketing manager, how people should buy a car. This is an example of …….method of researching consumer behaviour.
(A) Introspective (B) Retrospective
(C) Prospective (D) Prescriptive
(E) None of these
143. Mass media usually has greatest impact at the ……… state of new task buying .
(A) Awareness (B) Interest
(C) Trial (D) Adoption.
(E) None of these
144. Sales force usually have their greatest impact at the ………stage of new task buyer.
(A) Awareness (B) Interest
(C) Trial (D) Adoption.
(E) None of these
145. Companies need to know all of the following about their competitors except:
(A) What are their objectives
(B) What are their Strategies]
(C) What are their legal advisors
(D) What are their strengths and weaknesses.
(E) None of these
146. ……….. competitors offer new or other ways to satisfy the same needs:
(A) Latent (B) Hidden
(C) Aggressive (D) Covert.
(E) None of these
147. Eastman Kodak, in its film business, has been worrying about the growing competition from Fuji, the Japanese film maker . But Kodak faces a much greater threat from the recent innovation of the filmless camera This is …….a competition:
(A) Hidden (B) Covert
(C) Latent (D) All of these
(E) None of these
148. Unilever and other Detergent manufacturers are nervous about research being done on an ultra-sonic washing machine. If perfected, this machine would wash clothes in water without any detergent. It is a………form of competition:
(A) Monopoly (B) Hidden
(C) Covert (D) Latent
(E) None of these
149. Sony innovated the walkman and started as a monopolist , but soon many other companies entered and offered different version of the product, leading to on….. competitive structure:
(A) Perfect (B) Monopolistically
(C) Oligopoly (D) Duopoly.
(E) None of these
150. One way to find the competitive products is through:
(A) Elasticity of demand
(B) Price elasticity of demand
(C) Cross elasticity of demand
(D) Market elasticity of demand
(E) None of these
151. A few companies producing partially differentiated products on the basis of lies of quality, features , styling or services . Each competitor may seek leadership along one of their major attributes and charge a price premium for that attribute . It is a ……competition.
(A) Monpolistic
(B) Pure oligopoly
(C) Differentiated oligopoly
(D) Pure competition
(E) None of these
152. A……….competitive industry consists of many competitors able to differentiate their offers in whole or part. Many of the competitors focus or market segment where they can meet customers need in a superior way and command a price premium.
(A) Perfect (B) Pure
(C) Monopolistic (D) Oligopoly
(E) None of these
153. There are more than 200 companies producing biscuits in a country. Some of them heavily advertise to psychologically differentiate their band in the minds of consumers. This is an example of …….
(A) Pure competition.
(B) Monopolistic competition
(C) Pure oligopoly
(D) Monopoly
(E) None of these
154. If TELCO starts fabricating bus and trucks bodies, then it is a:
(A) Horizontal integration
(B) Backward integration
(C) Forward integration
(D) Vertical integration
(E) None of these
155. The percentage of customers who named the competitor in responding to the statement “Name the first automobile company that come to your mind in car manufacturing” It is a measure of customers…..
(A) Share of market
(B) Share of mind
(C) Share of heart
(D) Share of recall
(E) None of these
156. The percentage of customers who named the competitor in responding to the statement. “Name the company from whom you would prefer to buy the product”. It is a ……… measure of customer.
(A) Share of mind (B) Share of market
(C) Share of heart (D) Share of recall.
(E) None of these
157. Some competitors do not react quickly are strongly to a given competitors mood. They may feel their customers are loyal It is a common reaction profile of….. competitors.
(A) Stochastic competitor
(B) Tiger competitor
(C) Selective competitor
(D) Laid back competitor
(E) None of these
158. A competitor who reacts only to certain types of attacks and not other is a ….. competitor:
(A) Tiger (B) Stochastic
(C) Selective (D) Laid back
(E) None of these
159. A competitor which reacts in unpredictable ways is a … competitor:
(A) Tiger (B) Stochastic
(C) Selective (D) Laid back
(E) None of these
160. Which department of a company is responsible for demand forecasting of sales:
(A) Production (B) Accounting
(C) Finance (D) Marketing
(E) None of these
161. If a house construction company surveyed a sample of respondents to determine, what fraction would be interested in buying house , the resulting percent age would define the …. Market.
(A) Avilable (B) Existing
(C) Potential (D) Actual
(E) None of these
162. The available market is the set of customers who have:
(A) Interest
(B) Income
(C) Access to a particular market offer
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
163. The served market and target market are:
(A) Synonymous
(B) Autonomous
(C) Different
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
164. The total volume that would be bought by a defined customer group in a defined geographical area in a defined time period , in a define market environment under a defined market programme is :
(A) Company sales
(B) Market supply
(C) Market demand
(D) Market forecast
(E) None of these
165. Suppose the population of a country is 20 cores and 20% of the masses consume jam. Per capita consumption is 250 gms per month. The price of the jam is Rs. 80 per kg. The market potential for jam per annum will be:
(A) Rs. 12 crore
(B) Rs. 80 crore
(C) Rs. 960 crore
(D) Rs. 2880 crore
(E) None of these
166. Total market potential is expressed as:
(A) Q=npq (B) Q= np/q
(C) Q= pq/n (D) Q= np
(E) None of these
Where Q= Total market potential n= Number of buyers in a specific product market under the given assumption
P= Price of an average unit
Q= Quality purchased by an average buyer.
167. The difference between market minimum and the market potential showed the overall:
(A) Market elastic of demand
(B) Marketing sensitivity of demand
(C) Market income elasticity of demand
(D) Market cross elasticity of demand
(E) None of these
168. Beyond a certain level marketing expenditure does not help in stimulating further demand. The upper limit to market demand is:
(A) Market potential
(B) Available market
(C) Market scope
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
169. When the seller engages in the mass production ,mass distribution and mass promotion of one product for all buyers is called:
(A) Target marketing
(B) Product marketing
(C) Popular marketing
(D) Mass marketing
(E) None of these
170. Soft-drink giant, Coca- Cola is a best example fo:
(A) Mass marketing
(B) Product variety marketing
(C) Target marketing
(D) Customer-friendly marketing
(E) None of these
171. The seller produces several products that exhibit different features, styles, quantities, sizes etc. They are designed of offer variety to buyers, rather than to appeal to different market segment is:
(A)Mass marketing
(B)Product variety marketing
(C) Target marketing
(D) All of these
(D) None of these
172. Maruti Udyog Ltd. (MUL) is providing to a particular segment variety of models like standard 800, 800 Ex. alto etc. This is an example of…
(‍‍A) Mass marketing
(B) Customer marketing
(C) Product variety marketing
(D) Target marketing
(E) None of these
173. When the seller distinguishes the major market segment, targets one or more of these segment and develops products and marketing programme tailored to each segment is called.:
(A) Mass marketing
(B) Product variety marketing
(C) Target marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
174. Market……are large identifiable groups within the market:
(A) Sub groups
(B) Segments
(C) Portions
(D) Offshoots
(E) None of these
175. The variables used to segment the market is/are:
(A) Purchasing power
(B) Geographical location
(C) Buying attitudes
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
176. Hindustan Lever Ltd. Who is manufacturing variety of toilet soaps is probably segmenting the market on the basis of:
(A) Geographical location
(B) Buying attitudes
(C) Income of the customers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
177. Consumers who show no loyalty to any brand are called:
(A) Shifting loyal (B) Split loyal
(C) Switchers (D) All of these
(E) None of these
178. Consumers who are loyal to two or three brands are called:
(A) Split loyal
(B) Shifting loyal
(C) Switchers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
179. Consumes who shift from favouring one brand to another are termed as:
(A) Split loyal
(B) Shifting loyal
(C) Switchers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
180. The requirements for effective segmentation should have all the following except:
(A) Measurable (B) Substantial
(C) Accessible (D) Rationality
(E) None of these
181. The firm might ignore market segment differences and go after the whole market, with one market offer. It is called:
(A) Differentiated marketing
(B) Undifferentiated marketing
(C) Cyber marketing
(D) Direct marketing
(E) None of these
182. An example of undifferentiated marketing is observable in :
(A) Hindustan Lever Limited
(B) Maruti Udyog Limited
(C) Coco- Cola Company
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
183. When a firm operates in several market segments and designs different programmer for each segment. It is called:
(A) Cyber marketing
(B) Direct marketing
(C) Indifferentiated marketing
(D) Differentiated marketing
(E) None of these
184. Maruti Udyog Ltd. manufactures cars for every purse, purpose and personality . It is an example of
(A) Cyber marketing
(B) Direct marketing
(C) Undifferentiated marketing
(D) Differentiated marketing
(E) None of these
185. The major benefit of an undifferentiated marketing is:
(A) Cost economics
(B) Less competition
(C) Greater profit
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
186. New Products that create an entirely new market is called:
(A) New product line
(B) Repositioning
(C) New to the world products
(D) Additions to the existing product line
(E) None of these
187. Existing products that are targeted to new markets or market segments is called:
(A) New product lines
(B) Additions to existing product line
(C) Repositioning
(D) Improvement in existing product line
(E) None of these
188. The most sophisticated tool for managing the innovation process is the …..
(A) Check point (B) Stage gate system
(C) Mill stone (D) Key note
(E) None of these
189. The creative technique that begins with a very broad problem definition and eventually works down to a specific problem needing a solution is called:
(A) Brain storming
(B) Morphological analysis
(C) Synectics (D) Attribute listing
(E) None of these
190. Brain storming technique was developed by :
(A) Willing J.J.Gordan
(B) Segment Freaud
(C) Oliver Sheldon
(D) Alex Osborn
(E) None of these
191. The first idea pruning stage is called:
(A) Evaluting (B) Analysis
(C) Screening (D) Generating
(E) None of these
192. In screening ideas, company must avoid …. errors:
(A) Drop error (B) Go error
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Growth error
(E) None of these
193. Which of the following is the most expensive stage in the new product development process:
(A) Concept testing
(B) Product development
(C) Market testing
(D) Commercialization
(E) None of these
194. Adopters of new products move hrough the following five stages . Find their correct sequence:
(A) Awareness , interest, evaluation, trial adoption
(B) Interest, awareness, trial , evaluation, adoption
(C) Trial awareness , interest, adoption, evaluation
(D) Trial , interest, awareness, evaluation , adoption
(E) None of these
195. People differ markedly in their readiness to try new product. The degree to which an individual is relatively earlier in adopting new ideas than the other members of his social system are called:
(A) Early adopters (B) Early majority
(C) Innovators (D) Laggards
(E) None of these
196. ………play a major role in the adoption of new products:
(A) Personal products
(B) Personal influence
(C) Relatives
(D) Friends
(E) None of these
197. The parent concept theory of product life cycle is :
(A) Demand life cycle
(B) Technology life cycle
(C) Demand / Technology life cycle
(D) Nature of product
(E) None of these
198. The correct sequence in product life cycle are:
(A) Growth, introduction, maturity, declined .
(B) Introduction, maturity, growth, decline .
(C) Growth, maturity, introduction, decline,
(D)Introduction, growth, maturity, decline,
(E) None of these,
199. Mobile phones in India are in the …………stage of product life cycle:
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Decline
(E) None of these
200.Manual typewriters are in the ………„.stage of product life cycle:
(A) Introduction
(B) Maturity
(C) Growth
(D) Decline
(E) None of these
201. All of the following are stages in demand life cycle except:
(A) Accelerating growth
(B) Maturity
(C) Constant growth
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
202. Profits improve substantially during the…………stage of product life cycle:
(A) Introduction (B) Growth
(C) Maturity (D) Decline
(E) None of these
203. Life cycle may tale…………….of the following shapes:
(A) ‘S’ shaped (B) Cycle-recycle
(C) Scalloped (D) All of these
(E) None of these
204. Rapid slimming strategy consist of launching the new product at a……………price and a…………promotion level:
(A) Low, low (B) Low, high
(C) High, low (D) High, high
(E) None of these
205. Slow slimming strategy consist of launching the new product at a…………….price and………….promotion:
(A) High, low (B) Low, high
(C) High, high (D) Low, low
(E) None of these
206. When the market is limited in size; most of the market is aware of the product; buyers are willing to pay a high price; and potential competition is not eminent. In this situation the best strategy is:
(A) Rapid skimming
(B) Slow skimming
(C) Rapid penetration
(D) Slow penetration
(E) None of these
207. Rapid penetration strategy consist of launching of product at a ….. price and spending … on promotion:
(A) Low, heavily (B) Low, low
(C) High, heavily (D) High, low
(E) None of these
208. When the market is large , the market is unaware of the product; most buyers are price sensitive , there is strong potential competition, and the Company’s unit manufacturing cost falls with level production. The best strategy is:
(A) Rapid skimming
(B) Slow skimming
(C) Rapid penetration
(D) Slow penetration
(E) None of these
209. Slow penetration strategy cosist of launching the new product at a …. Price and …level of promotion:
(A) High, low
(B) Low, high
(C) Low, low
(D) High, high
(E) None of these
210. Promotional expenditures to sales ratio is generally high at…. Stage of product life cycle:
(A) Growth (B) Introduction
(C) Maturity (D) Decline
(E) None of these
211. Assume the market is large; highly aware of a new product; price sensitive and there is some potential competition. The best strategy will be:
(A) Rapid skimming
(B) Slow skimming
(C) Rapid penetration
(D) Slow penetration
(E) None of these
212. Marketing strategy (s) in the growth stage include all of he following except:
(A) Improve product quality and add new features
(B) Add new models and flanker products
(C) Enters new market segments
(D) Product awareness advertising
(E) None of these
213. Best stage to introduce new product is……
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Decline
(E) None of these
214. Generaly the longest stage in product life cycle is……stage:
(A) Introduction (B) Growth
(C) Maturity (D) Decline
(E) None of these
215. Most producs are in the …..stage of product life cycle:
(A) Maturity (B) Decline
(C) Introduction (D)Growth
(E) None of these
216. The life cycle stage characterized by falling price , increased advertising decline profits and industry shake-up depicts….stage of product life cycle:
(A) Maturity (B) Growth
(C) Decline (D) Introduction
(E) None of these
217. Managers try to stimulate sales by modifying product characteristics at maturity stage. This is done through:
(A) Quality improvement
(B) Feature improvement
(C) Style improvement
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
218. Style improvement aims at increasing the …of the product:
(A) Aesthetic appeal
(B) Size
(C) Accessories
(D) Durability
(E) None of these
219. During the market emergence stage ,it is better for small films to pursue a …strategy:
(A) Single niche
(B) Multiple niche
(C) Mass marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
220. During the market emergence stage ,it is better for large films to pursue a …strategy:
(A)Single niche
(B)Multiple niche
(C)Mass marketing
(D)All of these
(E) None of these
221. The most constructive mechanism for defending market share is:
(A) Through continuous innovations
(B) Through vertical integration
(C) Through horizontal integration
(D) Through diagonal integration
(E) None of these
222. Market leader who engages in such practices as introducing new products reducing costs and improving customer services is trying to:
(A) Improve quality of the product
(B) Use pre-emptive defence
(C) Defend market charges
(D) Use counter defence
(E) None of these
223. A product is anything that can be offered to a market for attention , acquisition ,use or consumption that might satisfy…
(A) Will (B) Wants or needs
(C) Desire (D) Demand
(E) None of these
224. A….is a set of all products and items that a particular seller makes available to a buyer:
(A) Sales yield (B) Product yield
(C) Sales mix (D) Product mix
(E) None of these
225. a group of diverse, but related items that function in a compatible manner is called:
(A) Product style (B) Product mix
(C) Product system (D) Product variety
(E) None of these
226. Nikon company sells a basic 35mm camera along with an extensive set of lenses, filters and other accessories is an example of:
(A) Product style (B) Product system
(C) Product mix (D) product variety
(E) None of these
227. A Company’s product mix will have a :
(A) Length
(B) Width
(C) Depth and consistency
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
228. Hindustan Liver Ltd. Manufactures toilet, soaps like Lifebuoy, Lux etc. taken together these brands of toilet soaps constitute a:
(A) Product line (B) Product mix
(C) Product class (D) Product variety
(E) None of these
229. A group a products that are closely related because they perform a similar function, are sold to the same customers group , are marketed through the same channels or make open particulars price range is called:
(A) Product system (B) product variety
(C) Product mix (D) Product line
(E) None of these
230. The number of different lines offered by a company is termed as:
(A) Length (B) Width
(C) Depth (D) Breadth
(E) None of these
231. The ….of the product mix refers of the total number of items in the mix:
(A) Length (B) Width
(C) Depth (D) Breadth
(E) None of these
Answers-
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.A 11.C 12.B13.A 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.D 18.C 19.C 20.D 21.D 22.C 23.A 24.B
25.C 26.B 27.D 28.D 29.D 30.B 31.D 32.C 33.C 34.C 35.A 36.D37.C 38.C 39.C 40.C 41.D 42.D 43.B 44.A 45.D 46.D 47.E 48.D
49.A 50.B 51.C 52.A 53.B 54.D 55.A 56.C 57.D 58.A 59.C 60.A61.B 62.C 63.D 64.A 65.C 66.D 67.E 68.A 69.C 70.B 71.A 72.A 73.D 74.C 75.A 76.D 77.D 78.E 79.C 80.C 81.B 82.A 83.A 84.D
85.B 86.C 87.A 88.A 89.B 90.D 91.A 92.D 93.A 94.D 95.C 96.C 97.C 98.E 99.B 100.C 101.C 102.D 103.A 104.C 105.C 106.B 107.D 108.A 109.C 110.A 111.B 112.A 113.B 114.C 115.D 116.C 117.C 118.D 119.A 120.C 121.C 122.B 123.C 124.C 125.D 126.D 127.B 128.B 129.D 130.D 131.A 132.D
133.E 134.C 135.A 136.D 137.D 138.A 139.D 140.A 141.D 142.D 143.A 144.B 145.C 146.A 147.C 148.D 149.B 150.C 151C. 152.C 153.B 154.C 155.D 156.C 157.D 158.C 159.B 160.D 161.C 162.D 163.A 164.C 165.C 166.A 167.B 168.A 169.D 170.A 171.B 172.C 173.C 174.B 175.D 176.C 177.C 178.A 179.B 180.D 181.B 182.C 183.D 184.D 185.A 186.C 187.C 188.B 189.C 190.D 191.C 192.C
193.D 194.A 195.C 196.B 197.C 198.D 199.B 200.D 201.C 202.B 203.D 204.D 205.A 206.B 207.A 208.C 209.C 210.B 211.D 212.D 213.C 214.C 215.A 216.A 217.D 218.A 219.A 220.C 221.A 222.C 223.B 224.D 225.C 226.B 227.D 228.A 229.D 230.B 231.A